2 upvotes, 2 direct replies (showing 2)
Someone gaslighting them could be doing it out of good intentions, or possibly even lying to themselves about it (believing they remember it differently and telling the person they are gaslighting them).
I'm not sure on the hard definition but OP is still right either way, they could be using it as a means to manipulate the person into rethinking that they are doing something to manipulate, whether that's a conscious attempt or subconscious one.
Either way, this discussion is too meta, it's making me confused.
Comment by Entheosparks at 16/12/2021 at 08:38 UTC
3 upvotes, 1 direct replies
Gaslighting really only requires 2 things: a pattern of dishonesty, and an intention to manipulate another's actions. The pattern is to lead someone into a false paradigm that primes them to act in a certain way.
When someone is capable of beleiving their own lies, there is no way the person could be aware of those lies being used to gaslight.
Comment by you-have-efd-up-now at 17/12/2021 at 00:02 UTC
0 upvotes, 1 direct replies
it's not that meta.
the definition of gaslighting means a person who is aware that the other is not crazy but is trying to intentionally manipulate them into believing they are crazy anyway with nefarious intent.
so by definition they couldn't be doing it out of good intentions, it needs to be with nefarious intent.
I'm not saying what you're describing couldn't happen, anything can happen , it just wouldn't be called gaslighting if it did.