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US Amateur Radio Test Question Pool G1-G0

Subelement G1

G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

A: 160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B: 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
(C): 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D: 80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

A: 12 meters
B: 17 meters
C: 160 meters
(D): 30 meters

G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

A: 160 meters
B: 12 meters
C: 20 meters
(D): 30 meters

G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

A: 12 meters
(B): 60 meters
C: 11 meters
D: 30 meters

G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

A: 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
B: 21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
(C): 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D: All these choices are correct

G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

A: Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
B: Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
(C): Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
D: Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

A: 28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B: 28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C: 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
(D): The entire band

G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

A: 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
(B): 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C: All HF bands
D: All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters

G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

A: 24900 kHz
B: 18155 kHz
C: 14250 kHz
(D): 21300 kHz

G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

A: The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
B: The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
(C): The portion above 29.5 MHz
D: The entire band

G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

(A): The upper frequency portion
B: The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C: The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D: The lower frequency portion

G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

A: 50 feet
B: 250 feet
(C): 200 feet
D: 100 feet

G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

A: The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
(B): No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
C: The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
D: All these choices are correct

G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

(A): Observation of propagation and reception
B: Automatic identification of repeaters
C: All these choices are correct
D: Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees

G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

A: Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
B: Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
(C): Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
D: Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

A: Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
B: All these choices are correct
C: Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
(D): Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

A: At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
B: Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
(C): Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
D: Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

A: They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
B: They are not permitted
(C): They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D: Only “Q” signals are permitted

G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

A: Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
B: Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C: Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
(D): When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

A: 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
B: On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
(C): 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
D: On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt

G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

A: 10 watts PEP output
B: 200 watts PEP output
C: 20 watts PEP output
(D): 100 watts PEP output

G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

A: The ITU
B: The IEEE
C: The control operator
(D): The FCC

G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

A: 1000 watts PEP output
(B): 200 watts PEP output
C: 2000 watts PEP output
D: 1500 watts PEP output

G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

(A): 1500 watts PEP output
B: 50 watts PEP output
C: 200 watts PEP output
D: An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

A: 5.6 kHz
B: 3 kHz
(C): 2.8 kHz
D: 1.8 kHz

G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

(A): If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B: You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
C: You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
D: You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked

G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

A: 2000 watts PEP output
(B): 1500 watts PEP output
C: 1000 watts PEP output
D: 100 watts PEP output

G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

A: 200 watts PEP output
B: 1200 watts PEP output
(C): 1500 watts PEP output
D: 1000 watts PEP output

G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

(A): Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
B: Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
C: Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
D: Obtain an experimental license from the FCC

G1C08

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

A: 10 watts RMS
(B): ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
C: 1500 watts PEP
D: ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

G1C09

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

A: RMS output from the transmitter
B: PEP input to the antenna
C: RMS input to the antenna
(D): PEP output from the transmitter

G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

A: Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
(B): Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C: Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
D: Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC

G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

A: None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
(B): Technician only
C: General and Technician
D: Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

A: Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
(B): On any General or Technician class band segment
C: Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
D: On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

(A): At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B: At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C: At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
D: At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

(A): A US operator/primary station license
B: Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
C: A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
D: Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC

G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

A: Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
(B): Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C: A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D: Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency

G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

A: The Universal Licensing System
B: The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
C: The Federal Communications Commission
(D): A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

A: The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
B: The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
(C): The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
D: None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

A: For as long as your current license is valid
B: 30 days
C: 180 days
(D): 365 days

G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

A: 21 years
B: There is no age limit
C: 16 years
(D): 18 years

G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

A: There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
B: Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
(C): The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
D: They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

A: Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
(B): Only those of the remote station’s country
C: Only those of the FCC
D: Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

A: The third party is speaking in a language other than English
(B): The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
C: All these choices are correct
D: The third party is not a US citizen

G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

A: Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
(B): Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
C: Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
D: Under no circumstances

G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

(A): The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B: The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C: No third-party traffic may be transmitted
D: The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

A: When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
(B): All these choices are correct
C: When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
D: When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

A: The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
B: They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
C: They must be for other licensed amateurs
(D): They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

(A): Region 2
B: Region 1
C: Region 3
D: Region 4

G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

A: Channels 42 through 45
(B): No part
C: Anywhere in the band
D: Channels 1 through 4

G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

A: 100 watts
B: 100 milliwatts
C: 1500 watts
(D): 10 watts

G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

(A): Under no circumstances
B: When under automatic control
C: When messages are encrypted
D: When messages are not encrypted

G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

A: These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
B: A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
(C): A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D: These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

A: Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
(B): Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C: Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D: On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

A: Under no circumstances except for emergencies
(B): Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
C: Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
D: Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC

Subelement G2

G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

(A): Upper sideband
B: Double sideband
C: Lower sideband
D: Suppressed sideband

G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

A: Upper sideband
B: Double sideband
(C): Lower sideband
D: Suppressed sideband

G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

A: Double sideband
B: Suppressed sideband
C: Lower sideband
(D): Upper sideband

G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

A: Suppressed sideband
(B): Upper sideband
C: Double sideband
D: Lower sideband

G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

A: Single phase modulation
B: Double sideband
(C): Single sideband
D: Frequency modulation

G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

(A): Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B: Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C: Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D: Very high-fidelity voice modulation

G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

A: SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
B: SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
(C): Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D: Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

A: Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
(B): Say your call sign once
C: Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
D: Say “Breaker Breaker”

G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

A: Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B: Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C: Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
(D): It is commonly accepted amateur practice

G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

A: It provides more power output
(B): It allows “hands free” operation
C: It occupies less bandwidth
D: The received signal is more natural sounding

G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

A: Only contest stations
(B): Any stations outside the lower 48 states
C: Only stations in Germany
D: Any caller is welcome to respond

G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

A: RF clipping level
B: Antenna inductance or capacitance
(C): Transmit audio or microphone gain
D: Attenuator level

G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

(A): Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
B: Nets have priority
C: QSOs in progress have priority
D: Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies

G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

(A): Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B: Inform your local emergency coordinator
C: Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
D: Immediately cease all transmissions

G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

A: Switch to the opposite sideband
(B): Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
C: Decrease power and continue to transmit
D: Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority

G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

A: 3 kHz to 6 kHz
B: 5 Hz to 50 Hz
(C): 150 Hz to 500 Hz
D: 1 kHz to 3 kHz

G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

A: 5 Hz to 50 Hz
B: 150 Hz to 500 Hz
(C): 2 kHz to 3 kHz
D: Approximately 6 kHz

G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

(A): Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
B: Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
C: Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
D: Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

A: Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
B: Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
(C): Follow the voluntary band plan
D: All these choices are correct

G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

A: Only digital contacts
(B): Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
C: Only SSTV contacts
D: Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states

G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

A: Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
B: Only a RACES net control operator
C: A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
(D): Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

A: All these choices are correct
(B): Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C: Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D: Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

(A): No more than 1 hour per week
B: No more than 2 hours per month
C: No more than 2 hours per week
D: No more than 1 hour per month

G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

A: Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
B: An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
C: Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
(D): Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

A: Change frequency
(B): Send slower
C: Increase your power
D: Repeat everything twice

G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

A: Closing station now
(B): Listening only for a specific station or stations
C: Operating full break-in
D: No US stations should call

G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

A: “Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
(B): “Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
C: “Are you listening only for a specific station?”
D: “Will you keep the frequency clear?”

G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

A: At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B: The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
(C): The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
D: At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

(A): Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B: Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C: Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D: Sending without error

G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

A: Key clicks
B: Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
(C): Chirpy or unstable signal
D: 100 percent copy

G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

A: BK
B: SK
C: KN
(D): AR

G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

A: We have worked before
B: We have already confirmed the contact
C: Send slower
(D): I have received and understood

G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

A: Stop sending
B: Send more slowly
C: Zero beat my signal
(D): I am troubled by static

G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

A: I am quitting for the day
B: You are sending too fast
(C): I am ready to receive
D: There is interference on the frequency

G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

(A): Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B: Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C: Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D: Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

A: To provide emergency and public safety communications
B: To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
(C): To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
D: To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

(A): Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
B: Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
C: Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
D: All these choices are correct

G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

A: A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
(B): A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
C: A map that shows accurate land masses
D: A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

A: Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
B: Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
C: Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
(D): Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary

G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

(A): 180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
B: Toward the rising sun
C: Along the gray line
D: Toward the north

G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

A: Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
B: Adam, Boy, Charles, David
(C): Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
D: America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

A: The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
(B): To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
C: The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
D: The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

A: All these choices are correct
B: Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
C: Submit a log to the contest sponsor
(D): Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

G2D10

What is QRP operation?

A: Traffic relay procedure net operation
(B): Low-power transmit operation
C: Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D: Remote piloted model control

G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

(A): To allow each station to operate according to conditions
B: To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
C: To follow standard radiogram structure
D: To be sure the contact will count for award programs

G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

A: USB
B: CW
(C): LSB
D: DSB

G2E02

What is VARA?

A: A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
B: DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
(C): A digital protocol used with Winlink
D: A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

A: Frequent retries or timeouts
(B): All these choices are correct
C: Failure to establish a connection between stations
D: Long pauses in message transmission

G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

(A): Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
B: Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
C: Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
D: Always call on the station’s frequency

G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

A: SSB
B: DSB
(C): USB
D: LSB

G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

A: 850 Hz
B: 85 Hz
C: 425 Hz
(D): 170 Hz

G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

A: Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
B: A special hardware modem
C: A vertically polarized antenna
(D): Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second

G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

A: At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
(B): Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
C: At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D: In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

(A): Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
B: Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
C: Send a NAK code
D: Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

A: Send an email to the system control operator
B: Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
(C): Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
D: Send QRL in Morse code

G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

A: To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
B: To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
C: To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
(D): To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event

G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

(A): All these choices are correct
B: A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
C: An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
D: A form of Packet Radio

G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

A: RJ-45
(B): Gateway
C: Terminal Node Controller
D: Printer/Server

G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

A: The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
(B): All these choices are correct
C: You may have selected the wrong baud rate
D: You may be listening on the wrong sideband

G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

A: Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
(B): Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
C: Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
D: Anywhere in the CW portion of the band

Subelement G3

G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

A: A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
B: Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
C: A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
(D): Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

A: It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
(B): It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C: None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D: It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

A: 20 to 40 hours
(B): 8 minutes
C: 28 days
D: 1 to 2 hours

G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

A: 30 meters and 20 meters
B: 80 meters and 160 meters
(C): 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
D: 60 meters and 40 meters

G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

A: A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
(B): A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
C: A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
D: Another name for the American sunspot number

G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

A: Ripples in the geomagnetic force
B: A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
C: A sudden drop in the solar flux index
(D): A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field

G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

A: Only at the maximum point
B: Only at the minimum point
(C): At any point
D: At the summer solstice

G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

A: Degrade ground wave propagation
B: Improve high-latitude HF propagation
C: Improve ground wave propagation
(D): Degrade high-latitude HF propagation

G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

(A): Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B: Improve HF long path propagation
C: Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
D: Reduce long delayed echoes

G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

A: The position of the Moon in its orbit
B: Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
(C): Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
D: Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

A: 28 days
(B): 15 hours to several days
C: 4 to 8 minutes
D: 14 days

G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

A: The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B: The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
(C): The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
D: The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field

G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

A: The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B: The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
C: The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
(D): The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field

G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

(A): HF communication is disturbed
B: VHF/UHF ducting is improved
C: VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D: HF communication is improved

G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

A: Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
(B): A slightly delayed echo might be heard
C: Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D: The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

(A): All these choices are correct
B: Path distance and location
C: Time of day and season
D: Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

A: Just above the critical frequency
B: Just below the critical frequency
C: Just above the LUF
(D): Just below the MUF

G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

(A): Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
B: Check the A-index
C: All these choices are correct
D: Send a series of dots and listen for echoes

G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

(A): They are refracted back to Earth
B: They pass through the ionosphere
C: They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D: They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

A: They pass through the ionosphere
B: They are refracted back to Earth
(C): They are attenuated before reaching the destination
D: They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

A: The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B: The Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
(C): The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
D: The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius

G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

A: The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B: The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C: The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
(D): The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

A: 12,000 miles
B: 1,200 miles
(C): 2,500 miles
D: 180 miles

G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

A: 2,500 miles
(B): 1,200 miles
C: 180 miles
D: 12,000 miles

G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

A: Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
B: HF communications over the path are enhanced
C: Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
(D): Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

A: World-wide propagation during daylight hours
(B): High levels of atmospheric noise or static
C: Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
D: Poor propagation at any time of day

G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

A: The F1 region
(B): The D region
C: The F2 region
D: The E region

G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

(A): The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B: The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C: The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D: The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

A: Because of temperature inversions
B: Because it is the densest
(C): Because it is the highest
D: Because of the Doppler effect

G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

A: The long path azimuth of a distant station
(B): The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C: The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D: The short path azimuth of a distant station

G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

A: The E region is unstable during daylight hours
B: The F region is unstable during daylight hours
C: The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
(D): The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

(A): Signals have a fluttering sound
B: Scatter propagation occurs only at night
C: Phone signals have high intelligibility
D: There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength

G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

A: The ionospheric region involved is unstable
B: The E region is not present
C: Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
(D): Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths

G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

A: Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
B: Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
(C): Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D: Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy

G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

A: Chordal hop
B: Faraday rotation
C: Short-path
(D): Scatter

G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

A: Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B: Propagation near the MUF
(C): Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D: Double hop propagation near the LUF

G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

A: The F2 region
B: The F1 region
(C): The D region
D: The E region

Subelement G4

G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

(A): To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
B: To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
C: To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
D: To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth

G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

A: More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
(B): It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
C: Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
D: Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

(A): By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
B: By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
C: By clipping noise peaks
D: By temporarily increasing received bandwidth

G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

A: A pronounced peak
B: No change will be observed
(C): A pronounced dip
D: A slow, rhythmic oscillation

G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

A: To reduce harmonic radiation
(B): To prevent excessive drive
C: To increase overall efficiency
D: To balance the transmitter audio frequency response

G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

A: Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
B: All these choices are correct
(C): Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
D: Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna

G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

A: CW signals may become severely attenuated
B: Received frequency may become unstable
C: Received frequency may shift several kHz
(D): Received signals may become distorted

G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

A: Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
B: Minimum SWR on the antenna
(C): Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D: Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

A: To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
(B): To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
C: To prevent key clicks on CW
D: To prevent transient overmodulation

G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

(A): Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
B: Automatic transmit/receive switching
C: Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
D: To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter

G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

A: ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B: When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
C: All these choices are correct
(D): The ALC action distorts the signal

G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

A: To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
B: To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
C: To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
(D): To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

A: To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
B: To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C: To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
(D): To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals

G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

A: An ohmmeter
(B): An oscilloscope
C: A signal generator
D: An ammeter

G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

A: Greater precision
B: An oscilloscope uses less power
C: Complex impedances can be easily measured
(D): Complex waveforms can be measured

G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

(A): An oscilloscope
B: A field strength meter
C: A wavemeter
D: A sidetone monitor

G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

A: The local oscillator of the transmitter
B: An external RF oscillator
(C): The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
D: The transmitter balanced mixer output

G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

A: It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
B: It improves the frequency response
(C): It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
D: It improves the resolution of the readings

G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

A: Better for measuring computer circuits
B: Faster response
(C): Higher precision
D: Less prone to overload

G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

(A): Two non-harmonically related audio signals
B: Two swept frequency tones
C: Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
D: Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

(A): Linearity
B: Percentage of carrier phase shift
C: Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
D: Percentage of frequency modulation

G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

(A): When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
B: When testing logic circuits
C: When high precision is desired
D: When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

A: Radio wave propagation
B: RF interference
C: Antenna front-to-back ratio
(D): Standing wave ratio

G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

A: All these choices are correct
(B): Antenna and feed line
C: Receiver
D: Transmitter

G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

A: Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
(B): Received power that interferes with SWR readings
C: Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
D: All these choices are correct

G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

A: Power output from a transmitter
B: Gain of a directional antenna
C: Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
(D): Impedance of coaxial cable

G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

A: Forward-biased diode
B: Reverse-biased diode
C: Bypass inductor
(D): Bypass capacitor

G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

(A): Arcing at a poor electrical connection
B: Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C: Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
D: Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

A: Clearly audible speech
B: A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
C: On-and-off humming or clicking
(D): Distorted speech

G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

A: A chirpy CW signal
B: A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C: Severely distorted audio
(D): On-and-off humming or clicking

G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

A: Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B: The ground rod is resonant
C: Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
(D): The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

A: A ground loop
B: Overheating of ground straps
(C): High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D: Corrosion of the ground rod

G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

A: Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B: Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
(C): A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
D: All these choices are correct

G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

A: Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
(B): Place a ferrite choke on the cable
C: Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
D: Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

A: Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
(B): Bond equipment enclosures together
C: Connect all ground conductors in series
D: Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire

G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

(A): You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
B: The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C: An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D: You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

A: Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
(B): Bonding all equipment enclosures together
C: Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D: Using surge suppressor power outlets

G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

A: It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
(B): It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C: It prevents signal overload
D: It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

A: Prevent distortion of voice signals
(B): Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
C: Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
D: Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

A: It increases peak power
(B): It increases average power
C: It reduces harmonic distortion
D: It reduces intermodulation distortion

G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

(A): All these choices are correct
B: Excess intermodulation products
C: Excessive background noise
D: Distorted speech

G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

A: Carrier suppression
B: Impedance
(C): Received signal strength
D: Transmitter power output

G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

(A): It is 100 times more powerful
B: It is 20 times less powerful
C: It is 10 times less powerful
D: It is 20 times more powerful

G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

(A): 6 dB
B: 15 dB
C: 12 dB
D: 18 dB

G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

A: Approximately 8 times
B: Approximately 2 times
(C): Approximately 4 times
D: Approximately 1.5 times

G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

A: 7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
B: 7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
C: 7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
(D): 7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz

G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

A: 14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
B: 14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
C: 14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
(D): 14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

A: At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B: At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
(C): At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D: At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

A: At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
(B): At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C: At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
D: At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

(A): To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B: To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C: To lower the radiation angle
D: To reduce radiation resistance

G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

A: To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
(B): To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
C: To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
D: To increase the “Q” of the antenna

G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

A: To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
(B): To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C: To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D: To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

A: The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B: The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C: Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
(D): The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

A: FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
(B): Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
C: “Picket fencing”
D: The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

(A): Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B: Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C: Q of the antenna will be very low
D: Harmonic radiation may increase

G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

A: The battery charging system
(B): All these choices are correct
C: The control computers
D: The fuel delivery system

G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

A: Shunt
B: Full-wave bridge
(C): Series-parallel
D: Bypass

G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

(A): 0.5 VDC
B: 0.02 VDC
C: 0.2 VDC
D: 1.38 VDC

G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

A: To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
(B): To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
C: To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
D: To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage

G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

A: A series resistor must be in place
B: Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
(C): The solar panel must have a charge controller
D: Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up

Subelement G5

G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

A: Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
B: Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
C: Resonance causes impedance to be very high
(D): Resonance causes impedance to be very low

G5A02

What is reactance?

(A): Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B: Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C: Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D: Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

A: Conductance
(B): Reactance
C: Reluctance
D: Admittance

G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

A: Reluctance
(B): Reactance
C: Conductance
D: Admittance

G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

A: As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B: As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C: As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
(D): As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

A: As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B: As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
(C): As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D: As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

A: Susceptance
B: Reluctance
(C): Admittance
D: Conductance

G5A08

What is impedance?

A: The product of current and voltage
B: The product of current and reactance
C: The ratio of current to voltage
(D): The ratio of voltage to current

G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

A: Ampere
B: Farad
C: Siemens
(D): Ohm

G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

(A): All these choices are correct
B: A transformer
C: A Pi-network
D: A length of transmission line

G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

A: B
B: Z
C: Y
(D): X

G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

A: Resistance is cancelled
(B): Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
C: Current and voltage are equal
D: The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves

G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

A: Approximately 9 dB
B: Approximately 6 dB
(C): Approximately 3 dB
D: Approximately 2 dB

G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

A: It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
(B): It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C: It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D: It equals the average of the branch currents

G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

(A): 200 watts
B: 400 watts
C: 3200 watts
D: 0.5 watts

G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

(A): 2.4 watts
B: 60 watts
C: 6 watts
D: 24 watts

G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

A: Approximately 11 milliwatts
(B): Approximately 61 milliwatts
C: Approximately 11 watts
D: Approximately 61 watts

G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

A: 1.4 watts
B: 400 watts
(C): 100 watts
D: 353.5 watts

G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

A: The peak-to-peak value
(B): The RMS value
C: The peak value
D: The reciprocal of the RMS value

G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

(A): 339.4 volts
B: 169.7 volts
C: 84.8 volts
D: 240.0 volts

G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

(A): 12 volts
B: 24 volts
C: 8.5 volts
D: 34 volts

G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

A: 12.2 percent
B: 10.9 percent
C: 25.9 percent
(D): 20.6 percent

G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

A: 2.00
(B): 1.00
C: 1.414
D: 0.707

G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

(A): 245 volts
B: 346 volts
C: 173 volts
D: 692 volts

G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

(A): 1060 watts
B: 2120 watts
C: 1500 watts
D: 530 watts

G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

A: 2500 watts
(B): 625 watts
C: 5000 watts
D: 8.75 watts

G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

A: Displacement current coupling
(B): Mutual inductance
C: Mutual capacitance
D: Capacitive coupling

G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

(A): The input voltage is multiplied by 4
B: The input voltage is divided by 4
C: Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
D: Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

A: 17 ohms
B: 0.17 ohms
C: 80 ohms
(D): 5.9 ohms

G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

(A): 67 ohms
B: 150 ohms
C: 300 ohms
D: 75 ohms

G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

(A): To accommodate the higher current of the primary
B: To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
C: To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D: To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

(A): 360 volts
B: 40 volts
C: 25.5 volts
D: 120 volts

G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

A: 24 to 1
B: 12 to 1
C: 144 to 1
(D): 3.5 to 1

G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

A: 576.9 nanofarads
(B): 10.750 nanofarads
C: 3,583 picofarads
D: 1,733 picofarads

G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

A: 3.0 microfarads
B: 0.33 microfarads
C: 300 microfarads
(D): 33.3 microfarads

G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

A: 0.30 henries
B: 30 millihenries
(C): 3.3 millihenries
D: 3.3 henries

G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

(A): 70 millihenries
B: 14.3 millihenries
C: 7 millihenries
D: 1,000 millihenries

G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

A: 0.07 microfarads
(B): 14.3 microfarads
C: 70 microfarads
D: 1,000 microfarads

G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

A: An inductor in series
B: A capacitor in series
(C): A capacitor in parallel
D: An inductor in parallel

G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

A: An inductor in parallel
(B): An inductor in series
C: A capacitor in parallel
D: A capacitor in series

Subelement G6

G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

A: 8.5 volts
(B): 10.5 volts
C: 6 volts
D: 12 volts

G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

A: High voltage
(B): High discharge current
C: Long life
D: Rapid recharge

G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

A: 1.0 volts
B: 0.7 volts
(C): 0.3 volts
D: 0.1 volt

G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

A: Tight tolerance
B: Inexpensive RF capacitor
C: Much less leakage than any other type
(D): High capacitance for a given volume

G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

A: 1.0 volts
(B): 0.7 volts
C: 0.3 volts
D: 0.1 volt

G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

A: The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
B: The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
(C): The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
D: The resistor could overheat

G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

(A): Saturation and cutoff
B: The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
C: Enhancement and depletion modes
D: Peak and valley current points

G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

(A): Comparatively low cost
B: Tight tolerance
C: High capacitance for given volume
D: High stability

G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

(A): The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
B: The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C: The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D: The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

A: Screen grid
B: Trigger electrode
C: Suppressor grid
(D): Control grid

G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

(A): It becomes capacitive
B: Harmonics are generated
C: Its reactance increases
D: Catastrophic failure is likely

G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

A: To increase the control grid resistance
(B): To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C: To increase efficiency
D: To decrease plate resistance

G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

A: Its thickness
(B): The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
C: The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
D: Its conductivity

G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

A: Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
(B): Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C: Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
D: Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit

G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

(A): Low power consumption
B: High power handling capability
C: Better suited for RF amplification
D: Better suited for power supply regulation

G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

A: 500 MHz
B: 40 GHz
C: 50 MHz
(D): 4 GHz

G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

(A): All these choices are correct
B: Large values of inductance may be obtained
C: The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D: Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

A: MMIC
B: Digital
(C): Analog
D: Programmable Logic

G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

A: A low noise figure VHF connector
B: A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
(C): A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
D: A nickel plated version of the PL-259

G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

A: In the tunnel-effect region
B: At the Zener voltage
(C): Forward biased
D: Reverse biased

G6B09

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

A: It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
B: By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
(C): By creating an impedance in the current’s path
D: Ferrites expel magnetic fields

G6B10

What is an SMA connector?

A: A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B: A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
(C): A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D: A type-S to type-M adaptor

G6B11

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

A: PL-259
(B): RCA Phono
C: Type N
D: BNC

Subelement G7

G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

A: It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
B: It eliminates ground loop current
C: It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
(D): It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

A: Transformers and transducers
B: Diodes
C: All these choices are correct
(D): Capacitors and inductors

G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

(A): Full-wave
B: Synchronous
C: Half-wave
D: Full-wave bridge

G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

A: The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
(B): Only one diode is required
C: The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
D: More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

A: 270 degrees
(B): 180 degrees
C: 360 degrees
D: 90 degrees

G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

A: 270 degrees
B: 180 degrees
C: 90 degrees
(D): 360 degrees

G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

A: A steady DC voltage
(B): A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C: A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D: A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

A: Inherently more stable
B: Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
(C): High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D: Fewer circuit components are required

G7A09

Figure for Question G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

A: Symbol 4
B: Symbol 2
(C): Symbol 1
D: Symbol 5

G7A10

Figure for Question G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

A: Symbol 11
(B): Symbol 5
C: Symbol 1
D: Symbol 4

G7A11

Figure for Question G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

A: Symbol 1
(B): Symbol 2
C: Symbol 11
D: Symbol 7

G7A12

Figure for Question G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

A: Symbol 7
(B): Symbol 6
C: Symbol 4
D: Symbol 1

G7A13

Figure for Question G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

(A): Symbol 7
B: Symbol 6
C: Symbol 1
D: Symbol 11

G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

A: To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
B: To keep the carrier on frequency
(C): To eliminate self-oscillations
D: To limit the modulation index

G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

A: Class AB
B: Class A
(C): Class C
D: Class B

G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

(A): Output is high only when both inputs are high
B: Output is high when either or both inputs are low
C: Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D: Output is low only when both inputs are high

G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

(A): 100%
B: Less than 50%
C: 50%
D: More than 50% but less than 100%

G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

A: 16
B: 3
(C): 8
D: 6

G7B06

What is a shift register?

A: An analog mixer
(B): A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C: A digital mixer
D: An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations

G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

A: An amplifier and a divider
B: A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
(C): A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D: A frequency multiplier and a mixer

G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

A: Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B: Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C: Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
(D): Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

(A): The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
B: The time delay of the lag circuit
C: The number of stages in the divider
D: The number of stages in the counter

G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

A: Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B: An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C: A Class C high efficiency amplifier
(D): An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

(A): FM
B: SSB
C: All these choices are correct
D: AM

G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

A: IF amplifier
B: Carrier oscillator
(C): Filter
D: RF amplifier

G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

A: Audio with equalized frequency response
B: Frequency modulated RF
(C): Double-sideband modulated RF
D: Audio extracted from the modulation signal

G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

A: To minimize transmitter power output
(B): To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
C: To reduce power supply ripple
D: To minimize radiation resistance

G7C04

How is a product detector used?

A: Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
B: Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
(C): Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
D: Used in a transmitter to perform frequency multiplication

G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

A: Extremely narrow tuning range
B: Relatively high-power output
C: Pure sine wave output
(D): Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

(A): A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
B: Fewer digital components are required
C: The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
D: Mixing products are greatly reduced

G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

A: Ultimate rejection
B: Return loss
C: Q
(D): Insertion loss

G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

A: Input amplifier gain
B: Demodulator stage bandwidth
C: Input amplifier noise figure
(D): All these choices are correct

G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

A: 180 degrees
B: 45 degrees
(C): 90 degrees
D: Zero

G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

(A): All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
B: Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
C: The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
D: Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

A: Detection
(B): All these choices are correct
C: Modulation
D: Filtering

G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

(A): Cutoff frequency
B: Notch frequency
C: Neper frequency
D: Rolloff frequency

G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

A: Insertion loss
B: Rolloff
C: Notch depth
(D): Ultimate rejection

G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

A: Cutoff and rolloff
B: Image and harmonic
(C): Upper and lower half-power
D: Pole and zero

Subelement G8

G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

A: By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
B: By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C: By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
(D): By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal

G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

A: Phase convolution
(B): Phase modulation
C: Phase inversion
D: Phase transformation

G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

(A): Frequency modulation
B: Frequency conversion
C: Frequency convolution
D: Frequency transformation

G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

(A): Phase modulation
B: Pulse modulation
C: Amplitude modulation
D: Multiplex modulation

G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

A: Phase modulation
B: Power modulation
C: Frequency modulation
(D): Amplitude modulation

G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

A: Its encoding provides error correction
B: It is sideband sensitive
C: Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
(D): All these choices are correct

G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

A: Frequency modulation
(B): Single sideband
C: Vestigial sideband
D: Phase modulation

G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

A: Frequency drift
B: Insufficient audio
(C): Excessive bandwidth
D: Insufficient bandwidth

G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

(A): 8-tone frequency shift keying
B: 8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
C: Amplitude compressed AM
D: Vestigial sideband

G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

A: Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B: The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
(C): Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
D: The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed

G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

(A): The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B: The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C: Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D: The carrier frequency that contains the signal

G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

A: Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
B: Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
(C): Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
D: Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals

G8A13

What is a link budget?

A: The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
B: The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
C: The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
(D): The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver

G8A14

What is link margin?

A: Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
B: Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
C: The opposite of fade margin
(D): The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver

G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

A: Image frequency
B: RF input
(C): Local oscillator
D: Beat frequency oscillator

G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

A: Mixer interference
(B): Image response
C: Intermediate interference
D: Quadrature response

G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

A: Phase inversion
(B): Heterodyning
C: Frequency inversion
D: Synthesizing

G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

A: Balanced converter
B: Reactance modulator
(C): Multiplier
D: Mixer

G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

(A): Odd-order
B: Intercept point
C: Second harmonics
D: Even-order

G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

A: 8 kHz
B: 5 kHz
C: 3 kHz
(D): 16 kHz

G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

A: 5 kHz
B: 60 kHz
(C): 416.7 Hz
D: 101.75 Hz

G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

(A): Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B: To prevent overmodulation
C: To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D: To aid in tuning your transmitter

G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

A: It is required by FCC rules
(B): It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
C: It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D: It improves impedance matching of the antenna

G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

A: Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
B: Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
(C): Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D: Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

A: The average
B: The arithmetic product
C: The ratio
(D): The sum and difference

G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

A: Heterodyning
(B): Intermodulation
C: Rolloff
D: Detection

G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

(A): 2F1-F2
B: 3F1-F2
C: 5F1-3F2
D: All these choices are correct

G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

A: 432 MHz
B: 10.7 GHz
(C): 2.4 GHz
D: 902 MHz

G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

A: PSK31
B: SSB-SC
C: MFSK16
(D): WSPR

G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

A: Directory
(B): Header
C: Preamble
D: Trailer

G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

A: A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
(B): A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
C: A code using error detection and correction
D: A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits

G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

A: Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
(B): Request retransmission of the packet
C: Packet was received without error
D: Entire file received correctly

G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

A: Packets will be routed incorrectly
(B): The connection is dropped
C: Encoding reverts to the default character set
D: The checksum overflows

G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

A: AMTOR
B: MSK144
(C): FT8
D: MFSK32

G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

A: Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
B: Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
C: Upper case letters are sent with more power
(D): Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission

G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

A: Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
(B): If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
C: Having more nodes increases signal strengths
D: More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference

G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

A: By using a parity bit with each character
B: By using the Varicode character set
(C): By transmitting redundant information with the data
D: By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength

G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

A: On and off
(B): Mark and space
C: Dot and dash
D: High and low

G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

A: Viterbi
(B): Varicode
C: Volumetric
D: Binary

G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

A: Insufficient modulation
B: Long path propagation
C: Backscatter propagation
(D): Overmodulation

G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

(A): Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
B: Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
C: Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
D: Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

(A): The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
B: The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
C: The signal is S3 (weak signals)
D: The signal is 3 dB over S9

G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

A: WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
B: Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
C: FT8, FT4, and FST4
(D): DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

Subelement G9

G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

A: The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
(B): The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C: The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D: The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

A: High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
B: There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
(C): High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
D: High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss

G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

A: 50 ohms
B: 100 ohms
(C): 450 ohms
D: 75 ohms

G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

A: Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B: Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C: Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
(D): A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

A: Attenuation is independent of frequency
(B): Attenuation increases
C: Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
D: Attenuation decreases

G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

A: Ohms per 100 feet
(B): Decibels per 100 feet
C: Decibels per 1,000 feet
D: Ohms per 1,000 feet

G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

A: The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
(B): The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C: The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D: The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

A: Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
B: 1:1
(C): 5:1
D: Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

(A): 4:1
B: 2:1
C: 1:4
D: 1:2

G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

A: 1:2
(B): 5:1
C: 2:1
D: 1:5

G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

(A): Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
B: Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
C: Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
D: Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line

G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

A: It produces only vertically polarized radiation
B: It must be longer than 1 wavelength
C: It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
(D): Station equipment may carry significant RF current

G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

(A): Slope the radials downward
B: Slope the radials upward
C: Coil the radials
D: Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

A: Hemispherical
(B): Omnidirectional in azimuth
C: Bi-directional in azimuth
D: Isotropic

G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

A: It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
B: It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
C: It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
(D): It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

A: Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B: If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C: If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
(D): If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

(A): On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
B: At the center of the antenna
C: Parallel to the antenna element
D: As high as possible above the ground

G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

A: It steadily increases
(B): It steadily decreases
C: It is unaffected by the height above ground
D: It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

(A): It steadily increases
B: It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C: It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D: It steadily decreases

G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

A: Lower radiation resistance
B: Lower feed point impedance
C: Shorter radials
(D): Lower ground losses

G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

A: 8 feet
B: 24 feet
(C): 33 feet
D: 16 feet

G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

A: 84 feet
B: 42 feet
C: 263 feet
(D): 132 feet

G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

A: 11 feet
B: 16 feet
(C): 8 feet
D: 21 feet

G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

A: Loading coils in series with the element
B: Closer element spacing
C: Tapered-diameter elements
(D): Larger-diameter elements

G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

A: 3/4 wavelength
B: 1/4 wavelength
C: 1 wavelength
(D): 1/2 wavelength

G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

A: The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
B: Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
C: They are all the same length
(D): The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

(A): Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
B: Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
C: Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
D: Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

(A): Gain increases
B: Front-to-back ratio decreases
C: Beamwidth increases
D: Resonant frequency is lower

G9C06

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

(A): The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
B: The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C: The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
D: The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

G9C07

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

A: The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
(B): The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C: The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D: The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

G9C08

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

(A): Approximately 3 dB higher
B: Approximately 1.5 dB higher
C: Approximately 9 dB higher
D: Approximately 6 dB higher

G9C09

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

A: The physical length of the boom
(B): All these choices are correct
C: The number of elements on the boom
D: The spacing of each element along the boom

G9C10

What is a beta or hairpin match?

A: A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
B: A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
(C): A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D: A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

G9C11

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

A: It does not require any inductors or capacitors
(B): It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
C: All these choices are correct
D: It is useful for matching multiband antennas

G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

A: A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B: A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
(C): A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D: A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

A: Very low
(B): Very high
C: Approximately 300 ohms
D: Approximately 50 ohms

G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

A: Broadside to the plane of the halo
B: Opposite the feed point
(C): Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D: On the same side as the feed point

G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

A: To prevent out-of-band operation
(B): To enable multiband operation
C: To notch spurious frequencies
D: To provide balanced feed point impedance

G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

A: It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
B: It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C: It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
(D): It narrows the main lobe in elevation

G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

A: Harmonic suppression
B: Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
C: Polarization diversity
(D): Wide bandwidth

G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

A: Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
B: Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
(C): Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
D: SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length

G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

A: By extending and retracting the whip
(B): By varying the base loading inductance
C: By deploying a capacitance hat
D: By varying its body capacitance

G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

A: Directional transmitting for low HF bands
B: Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
C: Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
(D): Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands

G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

A: Broadside and in the plane of the loop
B: In the plane of the loop
C: Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
(D): Broadside to the loop

G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

(A): They have poor harmonic rejection
B: They must be fed with open wire line
C: They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D: They must be used with an antenna tuner

G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

(A): Inverted V
B: Inverted L
C: Lazy H
D: Sloper

Subelement G0

G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

A: It causes radiation poisoning
B: It cools body tissue
C: It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
(D): It heats body tissue

G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

A: Its power density
(B): All these choices are correct
C: Its frequency
D: Its duty cycle

G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

A: By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B: By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
(C): All these choices are correct
D: By calculation based on computer modeling

G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

A: The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
B: The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
C: The total time of the exposure
(D): The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period

G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

A: File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
(B): Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
C: Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D: All these choices are correct

G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

A: Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
B: Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C: Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
(D): Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

(A): A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B: A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C: High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D: Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

A: Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
(B): Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
C: Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
D: All these choices are correct

G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

A: A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
(B): A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
C: An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
D: An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

(A): Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
B: Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
C: All these choices are correct
D: Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

A: Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
(B): Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
C: Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D: Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation

G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

A: Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
B: Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
(C): All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D: All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

(A): Only the hot wires
B: Only the neutral wire
C: All wires
D: Only the ground wire

G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

A: AWG number 8
B: AWG number 20
(C): AWG number 12
D: AWG number 16

G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

A: 25 amperes
(B): 15 amperes
C: 30 amperes
D: 20 amperes

G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

A: Next to the closest power pole
B: Parallel to the water supply line
C: As close to the station equipment as possible
(D): Outside the building

G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

A: Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
B: All these choices are correct
C: Overvoltage on the hot wires
(D): Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

A: Acceptable modulation limits
(B): Electrical safety of the station
C: RF exposure limits of the human body
D: Acceptable bandwidth limits

G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

(A): Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
B: Always hold on to the tower with one hand
C: Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
D: All these choices are correct

G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

A: Unground the base of the tower
B: All these choices are correct
(C): Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
D: Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

A: Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
B: All these choices are correct
(C): The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
D: The generator must be insulated from ground

G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

A: High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B: RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C: Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
(D): Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

(A): They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B: Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C: Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D: They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

A: To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
(B): To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C: To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
D: To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

A: In series with each ground lead
B: At the closest power pole ground electrode
C: On the antenna, opposite the feed point
(D): Where the feed lines enter the building