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US Amateur Radio Test Question Pool T1-T0

Subelement T1

T1A01

Which of the following is part of the Basis and Purpose of the Amateur Radio Service?

A: Providing personal radio communications for as many citizens as possible
B: All these choices are correct
C: Providing communications for international non-profit organizations
(D): Advancing skills in the technical and communication phases of the radio art

T1A02

Which agency regulates and enforces the rules for the Amateur Radio Service in the United States?

(A): The FCC
B: Homeland Security
C: All these choices are correct
D: FEMA

T1A03

What do the FCC rules state regarding the use of a phonetic alphabet for station identification in the Amateur Radio Service?

A: All these choices are correct
(B): It is encouraged
C: It is required when in contact with foreign stations
D: It is required when transmitting emergency messages

T1A04

How many operator/primary station license grants may be held by any one person?

(A): One
B: One for each band on which the person plans to operate
C: One for each permanent station location from which the person plans to operate
D: No more than two

T1A05

What proves that the FCC has issued an operator/primary license grant?

A: An email notification from the NCVEC granting the license
B: A printed copy of the certificate of successful completion of examination
C: All these choices are correct
(D): The license appears in the FCC ULS database

T1A06

What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a beacon?

A: A continuous transmission of weather information authorized in the amateur bands by the National Weather Service
B: A government transmitter marking the amateur radio band edges
(C): An amateur station transmitting communications for the purposes of observing propagation or related experimental activities
D: A bulletin sent by the FCC to announce a national emergency

T1A07

What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a space station?

A: Any satellite orbiting Earth
B: A manned satellite orbiting Earth
(C): An amateur station located more than 50 km above Earth's surface
D: An amateur station using amateur radio satellites for relay of signals

T1A08

Which of the following entities recommends transmit/receive channels and other parameters for auxiliary and repeater stations?

A: FCC Regional Field Office
B: Frequency Spectrum Manager appointed by the FCC
(C): Volunteer Frequency Coordinator recognized by local amateurs
D: International Telecommunication Union

T1A09

Who selects a Frequency Coordinator?

A: FCC Regional Field Office
B: The FCC Office of Spectrum Management and Coordination Policy
C: The local chapter of the Office of National Council of Independent Frequency Coordinators
(D): Amateur operators in a local or regional area whose stations are eligible to be repeater or auxiliary stations

T1A10

What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?

A: A radio service using amateur frequencies for emergency management or civil defense communications
B: A radio service using amateur stations for emergency management or civil defense communications
C: An emergency service using amateur operators certified by a civil defense organization as being enrolled in that organization
(D): All these choices are correct

T1A11

When is willful interference to other amateur radio stations permitted?

A: To stop another amateur station that is breaking the FCC rules
(B): At no time
C: At any time, stations in the Amateur Radio Service are not protected from willful interference
D: When making short test transmissions

T1B01

Which of the following frequency ranges are available for phone operation by Technician licensees?

A: 28.050 MHz to 28.150 MHz
B: 28.500 MHz to 28.600 MHz
C: 28.100 MHz to 28.300 MHz
(D): 28.300 MHz to 28.500 MHz

T1B02

Which amateurs may contact the International Space Station (ISS) on VHF bands?

A: Any amateur holding a General class or higher license who has applied for and received approval from NASA
B: Any amateur holding a Technician class or higher license who has applied for and received approval from NASA
C: Any amateur holding a General class or higher license
(D): Any amateur holding a Technician class or higher license

T1B03

Which frequency is in the 6 meter amateur band?

A: 28.50 MHz
B: 222.15 MHz
C: 49.00 MHz
(D): 52.525 MHz

T1B04

Which amateur band includes 146.52 MHz?

A: 6 meters
B: 70 centimeters
(C): 2 meters
D: 20 meters

T1B05

How may amateurs use the 219 to 220 MHz segment of 1.25 meter band?

(A): Fixed digital message forwarding systems only
B: Emergency traffic only
C: Spread spectrum only
D: Fast-scan television only

T1B06

On which HF bands does a Technician class operator have phone privileges?

A: 80 meter, 40 meter, 15 meter, and 10 meter bands
B: None
(C): 10 meter band only
D: 30 meter band only

T1B07

Which of the following VHF/UHF band segments are limited to CW only?

A: 902.0 MHz to 902.1 MHz
B: 219 MHz to 220 MHz and 420.0 MHz to 420.1 MHz
C: All these choices are correct
(D): 50.0 MHz to 50.1 MHz and 144.0 MHz to 144.1 MHz

T1B08

How are US amateurs restricted in segments of bands where the Amateur Radio Service is secondary?

A: International communications are not permitted in those segments
B: U.S. amateurs must give foreign amateur stations priority in those segments
(C): U.S. amateurs may find non-amateur stations in those segments, and must avoid interfering with them
D: Digital transmissions are not permitted in those segments

T1B09

Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?

A: So that modulation sidebands do not extend beyond the band edge
B: To allow for transmitter frequency drift
C: To allow for calibration error in the transmitter frequency display
(D): All these choices are correct

T1B10

Where may SSB phone be used in amateur bands above 50 MHz?

A: On any band if the power is limited to 25 watts
(B): In at least some segment of all these bands
C: Only in sub-bands allocated to General class or higher licensees
D: Only on repeaters

T1B11

What is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators in their HF band segments?

A: 100 watts
B: 10 watts
(C): 200 watts
D: 50 watts

T1B12

Except for some specific restrictions, what is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators using frequencies above 30 MHz?

A: 50 watts
B: 500 watts
C: 100 watts
(D): 1500 watts

T1C01

For which license classes are new licenses currently available from the FCC?

A: Novice, Technician, General, Amateur Extra
(B): Technician, General, Amateur Extra
C: Technician, Technician Plus, General, Amateur Extra
D: Novice, Technician Plus, General, Advanced

T1C02

Who may select a desired call sign under the vanity call sign rules?

A: Only a licensed amateur with a General or Amateur Extra Class license
B: Only a licensed amateur who has been licensed continuously for more than 10 years
C: Only a licensed amateur with an Amateur Extra Class license
(D): Any licensed amateur

T1C03

What types of international communications are an FCC-licensed amateur radio station permitted to make?

(A): Communications incidental to the purposes of the Amateur Radio Service and remarks of a personal character
B: Only communications incidental to contest exchanges; all other communications are prohibited
C: Communications incidental to conducting business or remarks of a personal nature
D: Any communications that would be permitted by an international broadcast station

T1C04

What may happen if the FCC is unable to reach you by email?

A: Nothing; there is no such requirement
B: Revocation of access to the license record in the FCC system
(C): Revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license
D: Fine and suspension of operator license

T1C05

Which of the following is a valid Technician class call sign format?

A: W1XX
B: KA1X
(C): KF1XXX
D: All these choices are correct

T1C06

From which of the following locations may an FCC-licensed amateur station transmit?

(A): From any vessel or craft located in international waters and documented or registered in the United States
B: From anywhere within International Telecommunication Union (ITU) Regions 2 and 3
C: From within any country that belongs to the International Telecommunication Union
D: From within any country that is a member of the United Nations

T1C07

Which of the following can result in revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license?

A: Failure to inform the FCC of any changes in the amateur station following performance of an RF safety environmental evaluation
(B): Failure to provide and maintain a correct email address with the FCC
C: Failure to obtain FCC type acceptance prior to using a home-built transmitter
D: Failure to have a copy of your license available at your station

T1C08

What is the normal term for an FCC-issued amateur radio license?

A: Five years
(B): Ten years
C: Eight years
D: Life

T1C09

What is the grace period for renewal if an amateur license expires?

(A): Two years
B: Five years
C: Three years
D: Ten years

T1C10

How soon after passing the examination for your first amateur radio license may you transmit on the amateur radio bands?

A: As soon as you receive your license in the mail from the FCC
(B): As soon as your operator/station license grant appears in the FCC’s license database
C: As soon as your operator/station license grant appears on the ARRL website
D: Immediately on receiving your Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE)

T1C11

If your license has expired and is still within the allowable grace period, may you continue to transmit on the amateur radio bands?

A: Yes, as soon as you apply for renewal
B: Yes, for up to one year
C: Yes, for up to two years
(D): No, you must wait until the license has been renewed

T1D01

With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur radio stations prohibited from exchanging communications?

A: Any country whose administration has notified the American Radio Relay League (ARRL) that it objects to such communications
(B): Any country whose administration has notified the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) that it objects to such communications
C: Any country banned from such communications by the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
D: Any country banned from making such communications by the American Radio Relay League (ARRL)

T1D02

Under which of the following circumstances are one-way transmissions by an amateur station prohibited?

A: International Morse Code Practice
B: Telecommand or transmissions of telemetry
(C): Broadcasting
D: In all circumstances

T1D03

When is it permissible to transmit messages encoded to obscure their meaning?

A: Only when transmitting certain approved digital codes
(B): Only when transmitting control commands to space stations or radio control craft
C: Only during contests
D: Never

T1D04

Under what conditions is an amateur station authorized to transmit music using a phone emission?

A: When the music produces no spurious emissions
B: When the music is transmitted above 1280 MHz
C: When transmissions are limited to less than three minutes per hour
(D): When incidental to an authorized retransmission of manned spacecraft communications

T1D05

When may amateur radio operators use their stations to notify other amateurs of the availability of equipment for sale or trade?

(A): When selling amateur radio equipment and not on a regular basis
B: When no profit is made on the sale
C: Never
D: When the equipment is not the personal property of either the station licensee, or the control operator, or their close relatives

T1D06

What, if any, are the restrictions concerning transmission of language that may be considered indecent or obscene?

A: The ITU maintains a list of words that are not permitted to be used on amateur frequencies
B: There is no such prohibition
C: The FCC maintains a list of words that are not permitted to be used on amateur frequencies
(D): Any such language is prohibited

T1D07

What types of amateur stations can automatically retransmit the signals of other amateur stations?

A: Auxiliary, beacon, or Earth stations
B: Beacon, repeater, or space stations
(C): Repeater, auxiliary, or space stations
D: Earth, repeater, or space stations

T1D08

In which of the following circumstances may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating that station?

A: All these choices are correct
B: When the communication is made to obtain emergency information for a local broadcast station
(C): When the communication is incidental to classroom instruction at an educational institution
D: When the communication is related to the sale of amateur equipment by the control operator's employer

T1D09

When may amateur stations transmit information in support of broadcasting, program production, or news gathering, assuming no other means is available?

A: Where noncommercial programming is gathered and supplied exclusively to the National Public Radio network
B: When broadcasting communications to or from the space shuttle
(C): When such communications are directly related to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property
D: Never

T1D10

How does the FCC define broadcasting for the Amateur Radio Service?

A: Transmission of messages directed only to amateur operators
(B): Transmissions intended for reception by the general public
C: Two-way transmissions by amateur stations
D: Any transmission made by the licensed station

T1D11

When may an amateur station transmit without identifying on the air?

A: When the transmissions are of a brief nature to make station adjustments
(B): When transmitting signals to control model craft
C: When the transmitted power level is below 1 watt
D: When the transmissions are unmodulated

T1E01

When may an amateur station transmit without a control operator?

(A): Never
B: When the transmitting station is an auxiliary station
C: When using automatic control, such as in the case of a repeater
D: When the station licensee is away and another licensed amateur is using the station

T1E02

Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station?

A: A General class or higher licensee with a satellite operator certification
(B): Any amateur allowed to transmit on the satellite uplink frequency
C: Only an Amateur Extra Class operator
D: Only an Amateur Extra Class operator who is also an AMSAT member

T1E03

Who must designate the station control operator?

A: Any licensed operator
B: The FCC
C: The frequency coordinator
(D): The station licensee

T1E04

What determines the transmitting frequency privileges of an amateur station?

A: The frequencies printed on the license grant
B: The frequency authorized by the frequency coordinator
(C): The class of operator license held by the control operator
D: The highest class of operator license held by anyone on the premises

T1E05

What is an amateur station’s control point?

A: The mailing address of the station licensee
(B): The location at which the control operator function is performed
C: The location of the station’s transmitting apparatus
D: The location of the station’s transmitting antenna

T1E06

When, under normal circumstances, may a Technician class licensee be the control operator of a station operating in an Amateur Extra Class band segment?

A: When using a club station whose trustee holds an Amateur Extra Class license
B: When designated as the control operator by an Amateur Extra Class licensee
C: As part of a multi-operator contest team
(D): At no time

T1E07

When the control operator is not the station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the station?

(A): The control operator and the station licensee
B: All licensed amateurs who are present at the operation
C: Only the station licensee
D: Only the control operator

T1E08

Which of the following is an example of automatic control?

A: Using a computer or other device to send CW automatically
B: Controlling a station over the internet
C: Using a computer or other device to identify automatically
(D): Repeater operation

T1E09

Which of the following are required for remote control operation?

(A): All these choices are correct
B: The control operator must be at the control point
C: A control operator is required at all times
D: The control operator must indirectly manipulate the controls

T1E10

Which of the following is an example of remote control as defined in Part 97?

A: All these choices are correct
(B): Operating the station over the internet
C: Repeater operation
D: Controlling a model aircraft, boat, or car by amateur radio

T1E11

Who does the FCC presume to be the control operator of an amateur station, unless documentation to the contrary is in the station records?

A: The person operating the station equipment
B: The third party participant
(C): The station licensee
D: The station custodian

T1F01

When must the station and its records be available for FCC inspection?

A: At any time ten days after notification by the FCC of such an inspection
(B): At any time upon request by an FCC representative
C: At any time after written notification by the FCC of such inspection
D: Only when presented with a valid warrant by an FCC official or government agent

T1F02

How often must you identify with your FCC-assigned call sign when using tactical call signs such as “Race Headquarters”?

A: At the end of every transmission
B: Never, the tactical call is sufficient
C: Once during every hour
(D): At the end of each communication and every ten minutes during a communication

T1F03

When are you required to transmit your assigned call sign?

A: At least once during each transmission
(B): At least every 10 minutes during and at the end of a communication
C: At the beginning of each contact, and every 10 minutes thereafter
D: At least every 15 minutes during and at the end of a communication

T1F04

What language may you use for identification when operating in a phone sub-band?

(A): English
B: English, French, or Spanish
C: Any language recognized by the ITU
D: Any language recognized by the United Nations

T1F05

What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals?

A: Send the call sign using only a phone emission
B: Send the call sign followed by the indicator R
C: Send the call sign followed by the indicator RPT
(D): Send the call sign using a CW or phone emission

T1F06

Which of the following self-assigned indicators are acceptable when using a phone transmission?

(A): All these choices are correct
B: KL7CC slant W3
C: KL7CC slash W3
D: KL7CC stroke W3

T1F07

Which of the following restrictions apply when a non-licensed person is allowed to speak to a foreign station using a station under the control of a licensed amateur operator?

A: All these choices are correct
(B): The foreign station must be in a country with which the U.S. has a third party agreement
C: The licensed control operator must do the station identification
D: The person must be a U.S. citizen

T1F08

What is the definition of third party communications?

A: Amateur radio communications where three stations are in communications with one another
(B): A message from a control operator to another amateur station control operator on behalf of another person
C: Operation when the transmitting equipment is licensed to a person other than the control operator
D: Temporary authorization for an unlicensed person to transmit on the amateur bands for technical experiments

T1F09

What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels?

A: Earth station
(B): Repeater station
C: Message forwarding station
D: Beacon station

T1F10

Who is accountable if a repeater inadvertently retransmits communications that violate the FCC rules?

(A): The control operator of the originating station
B: The control operator of the repeater
C: The owner of the repeater
D: Both the originating station and the repeater owner

T1F11

Which of the following is a requirement for the issuance of a club station license grant?

A: The club must be registered with the American Radio Relay League
(B): The club must have at least four members
C: All these choices are correct
D: The trustee must have an Amateur Extra Class operator license grant

Subelement T2

T2A01

What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 2 meter band?

A: Plus or minus 1 MHz
(B): Plus or minus 600 kHz
C: Plus or minus 5 MHz
D: Plus or minus 500 kHz

T2A02

What is the national calling frequency for FM simplex operations in the 2 meter band?

A: 446.000 MHz
B: 432.100 MHz
(C): 146.520 MHz
D: 145.000 MHz

T2A03

What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 70 cm band?

(A): Plus or minus 5 MHz
B: Plus or minus 600 kHz
C: Plus or minus 1 MHz
D: Plus or minus 500 kHz

T2A04

What is an appropriate way to call another station on a repeater if you know the other station's call sign?

A: Say "break, break," then say the station's call sign
(B): Say the station's call sign, then identify with your call sign
C: Wait for the station to call CQ, then answer
D: Say "CQ" three times, then the other station's call sign

T2A05

How should you respond to a station calling CQ?

A: Transmit "CQ" followed by the other station’s call sign
B: Transmit your call sign followed by the other station’s call sign
(C): Transmit the other station’s call sign followed by your call sign
D: Transmit a signal report followed by your call sign

T2A06

Which of the following is required when making on-the-air test transmissions?

A: Conduct tests only between 10 p.m. and 6 a.m. local time
B: All these choices are correct
(C): Identify the transmitting station
D: Notify the FCC of the transmissions

T2A07

What is meant by "repeater offset”?

A: The number of simultaneous transmit frequencies used by a repeater
B: The repeater station identification is done on a separate frequency
(C): The difference between a repeater’s transmit and receive frequencies
D: The repeater has a time delay to prevent interference

T2A08

What is the meaning of the procedural signal “CQ”?

A: Only the called station should transmit
B: Call on the quarter hour
C: Test transmission, no reply expected
(D): Calling any station

T2A09

Which of the following indicates that a station is listening on a repeater and looking for a contact?

A: “CQ CQ” followed by the repeater’s call sign
B: “QSY” followed by your call sign
(C): The station’s call sign followed by the word “monitoring”
D: The repeater call sign followed by the station’s call sign

T2A10

What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by the FCC?

A: A plan devised by a club to indicate frequency band usage
B: A list of operating schedules
C: A list of available net frequencies
(D): A voluntary guideline for using different modes or activities within an amateur band

T2A11

What term describes an amateur station that is transmitting and receiving on the same frequency?

A: Multiplex
B: Full duplex
C: Diplex
(D): Simplex

T2A12

What should you do before calling CQ?

(A): All these choices are correct
B: Listen first to be sure that no one else is using the frequency
C: Ask if the frequency is in use
D: Make sure you are authorized to use that frequency

T2B01

How is a VHF/UHF transceiver’s “reverse” function used?

A: To reduce power output
(B): To listen on a repeater’s input frequency
C: To increase power output
D: To listen on a repeater’s output frequency

T2B02

What term describes the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted along with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?

(A): CTCSS
B: DTMF
C: Tone burst
D: Carrier squelch

T2B03

Which of the following describes a linked repeater network?

A: Multiple repeaters with the same control operator
B: A system of repeaters linked by APRS
C: A single repeater with more than one receiver
(D): A network of repeaters in which signals received by one repeater are transmitted by all the repeaters in the network

T2B04

Which of the following could be the reason you are unable to access a repeater whose output you can hear?

A: You are using the wrong CTCSS tone
(B): All these choices are correct
C: You are using the wrong DCS code
D: Improper transceiver offset

T2B05

What would cause your FM transmission audio to be distorted on voice peaks?

A: Your transmit power is too high
(B): You are talking too loudly
C: Your repeater offset is inverted
D: You need to talk louder

T2B06

What type of signaling uses pairs of audio tones?

A: D-STAR
B: CTCSS
C: GPRS
(D): DTMF

T2B07

How can you join a digital repeater’s “talkgroup”?

A: Join the repeater owner’s club
B: Sign your call after the courtesy tone
(C): Program your radio with the group’s ID or code
D: Register your radio with the local FCC office

T2B08

Which of the following applies when two stations transmitting on the same frequency interfere with each other?

A: Interference is inevitable, so no action is required
B: Use subaudible tones so both stations can share the frequency
(C): The stations should negotiate continued use of the frequency
D: Both stations should choose another frequency to avoid conflict

T2B09

Why are simplex channels designated in the VHF/UHF band plans?

A: So stations with simple transmitters can access the repeater without automated offset
B: For contest operation
C: For working DX only
(D): So stations within range of each other can communicate without tying up a repeater

T2B10

Which Q signal indicates that you are receiving interference from other stations?

(A): QRM
B: QSB
C: QTH
D: QRN

T2B11

Which Q signal indicates that you are changing frequency?

A: QRZ
B: QSL
(C): QSY
D: QRU

T2B12

What is the purpose of the color code used on DMR repeater systems?

(A): Must match the repeater color code for access
B: Identifies the codec used
C: Defines the minimum signal level required for access
D: Defines the frequency pair to use

T2B13

What is the purpose of a squelch function?

(A): Mute the receiver audio when a signal is not present
B: Reduce interference from impulse noise
C: Reduce a CW transmitter's key clicks
D: Eliminate parasitic oscillations in an RF amplifier

T2C01

When do FCC rules NOT apply to the operation of an amateur station?

(A): FCC rules always apply
B: When operating under special ARES rules
C: When operating under special FEMA rules
D: When operating a RACES station

T2C02

Which of the following are typical duties of a Net Control Station?

A: All these choices are correct
B: Choose the regular net meeting time and frequency
(C): Call the net to order and direct communications between stations checking in
D: Ensure that all stations checking into the net are properly licensed for operation on the net frequency

T2C03

What technique is used to ensure that voice messages containing unusual words are received correctly?

A: Send the words by voice and Morse code
B: All these choices are correct
C: Speak very loudly into the microphone
(D): Spell the words using a standard phonetic alphabet

T2C04

What is RACES?

A: A radio contest held in a short period, sometimes called a “sprint”
B: An emergency organization combining amateur radio and citizens band operators and frequencies
(C): An FCC part 97 amateur radio service for civil defense communications during national emergencies
D: An international radio experimentation society

T2C05

What does the term “traffic” refer to in net operation?

A: The number of stations checking in and out of a net
B: Requests to activate the net by a served agency
(C): Messages exchanged by net stations
D: Operation by mobile or portable stations

T2C06

What is the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES)?

A: A training program that certifies amateur operators for membership in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service
B: A training program that provides licensing courses for those interested in obtaining an amateur license to use during emergencies
(C): A group of licensed amateurs who have voluntarily registered their qualifications and equipment for communications duty in the public service
D: A group of licensed amateurs who are members of the military and who voluntarily agreed to provide message handling services in the case of an emergency

T2C07

Which of the following is standard practice when you participate in a net?

(A): Unless you are reporting an emergency, transmit only when directed by the net control station
B: When first responding to the net control station, transmit your call sign, name, and address as in the FCC database
C: Record the time of each of your transmissions
D: All these choices are correct

T2C08

Which of the following is a characteristic of good traffic handling?

(A): Passing messages exactly as received
B: Ensuring that any newsworthy messages are relayed to the news media
C: Making decisions as to whether messages are worthy of relay or delivery
D: All these choices are correct

T2C09

Are amateur station control operators ever permitted to operate outside the frequency privileges of their license class?

A: Yes, but only when part of a FEMA emergency plan
(B): Yes, but only in situations involving the immediate safety of human life or protection of property
C: No
D: Yes, but only when part of a RACES emergency plan

T2C10

What information is contained in the preamble of a formal traffic message?

A: The email address of the originating station
B: The telephone number of the addressee
C: The address of the intended recipient
(D): Information needed to track the message

T2C11

What is meant by “check” in a radiogram header?

A: A box on the message form that indicates that the message was received and/or relayed
(B): The number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message
C: The call sign of the originating station
D: A list of stations that have relayed the message

Subelement T3

T3A01

Why do VHF signal strengths sometimes vary greatly when the antenna is moved only a few feet?

A: VHF ionospheric propagation is very sensitive to path length
B: All these choices are correct
C: The signal path encounters different concentrations of water vapor
(D): Multipath propagation cancels or reinforces signals

T3A02

What is the effect of vegetation on UHF and microwave signals?

A: Polarization rotation
B: Amplification
C: Knife-edge diffraction
(D): Absorption

T3A03

What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance CW and SSB contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?

A: Vertical
B: Right-hand circular
C: Left-hand circular
(D): Horizontal

T3A04

What happens when antennas at opposite ends of a VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not using the same polarization?

(A): Received signal strength is reduced
B: Signals have an echo effect
C: Nothing significant will happen
D: The modulation sidebands might become inverted

T3A05

When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to communicate with a distant repeater if buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?

(A): Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater
B: Increase the antenna SWR
C: Change from vertical to horizontal polarization
D: Try the long path

T3A06

What is the meaning of the term “picket fencing”?

A: A type of ground system used with vertical antennas
B: Local vs long-distance communications
(C): Rapid flutter on mobile signals due to multipath propagation
D: Alternating transmissions during a net operation

T3A07

What weather condition might decrease range at microwave frequencies?

A: Colder temperatures
B: High winds
C: Low barometric pressure
(D): Precipitation

T3A08

What is a likely cause of irregular fading of signals propagated by the ionosphere?

A: Interference from thunderstorms
(B): Random combining of signals arriving via different paths
C: Intermodulation distortion
D: Frequency shift due to Faraday rotation

T3A09

Which of the following results from the fact that signals propagated by the ionosphere are elliptically polarized?

A: FM voice is unusable
B: Both the transmitting and receiving antennas must be of the same polarization
C: Digital modes are unusable
(D): Either vertically or horizontally polarized antennas may be used for transmission or reception

T3A10

What effect does multi-path propagation have on data transmissions?

A: Transmission rates must be increased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
(B): Error rates are likely to increase
C: No significant changes will occur if the signals are transmitted using FM
D: Transmission rates must be decreased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed

T3A11

Which region of the atmosphere can refract or bend HF and VHF radio waves?

(A): The ionosphere
B: The troposphere
C: The mesosphere
D: The stratosphere

T3A12

What is the effect of fog and rain on signals in the 10 meter and 6 meter bands?

A: Absorption
(B): There is little effect
C: Range increase
D: Deflection

T3B01

What is the relationship between the electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave?

A: They travel at different speeds
B: They revolve in opposite directions
C: They are in parallel
(D): They are at right angles

T3B02

What property of a radio wave defines its polarization?

A: The orientation of the magnetic field
B: The ratio of the velocity to the wavelength
(C): The orientation of the electric field
D: The ratio of the energy in the magnetic field to the energy in the electric field

T3B03

What are the two components of a radio wave?

(A): Electric and magnetic fields
B: Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation
C: Voltage and current
D: Impedance and reactance

T3B04

What is the velocity of a radio wave traveling through free space?

A: Speed inversely proportional to its wavelength
B: Speed of sound
(C): Speed of light
D: Speed that increases as the frequency increases

T3B05

What is the relationship between wavelength and frequency?

A: Wavelength and frequency increase as path length increases
(B): Wavelength gets shorter as frequency increases
C: Wavelength and frequency are unrelated
D: Wavelength gets longer as frequency increases

T3B06

What is the formula for converting frequency to approximate wavelength in meters?

A: Wavelength in meters equals frequency in megahertz divided by 300
B: Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz divided by 300
(C): Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz
D: Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz multiplied by 300

T3B07

In addition to frequency, which of the following is used to identify amateur radio bands?

A: Traditional letter/number designators
B: Channel numbers
(C): The approximate wavelength in meters
D: All these choices are correct

T3B08

What frequency range is referred to as VHF?

A: 300 MHz to 3000 MHz
B: 30 kHz to 300 kHz
(C): 30 MHz to 300 MHz
D: 300 kHz to 3000 kHz

T3B09

What frequency range is referred to as UHF?

A: 30 to 300 MHz
B: 300 to 3000 kHz
C: 30 to 300 kHz
(D): 300 to 3000 MHz

T3B10

What frequency range is referred to as HF?

A: 30 to 300 MHz
B: 300 to 3000 kHz
C: 300 to 3000 MHz
(D): 3 to 30 MHz

T3B11

What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave in free space?

A: 150,000 miles per hour
(B): 300,000,000 meters per second
C: 150,000 meters per second
D: 300,000,000 miles per hour

T3C01

Why are simplex UHF signals rarely heard beyond their radio horizon?

A: UHF signals are absorbed by the ionospheric D region
(B): UHF signals are usually not propagated by the ionosphere
C: FCC regulations prohibit them from going more than 50 miles
D: They are too weak to go very far

T3C02

What is a characteristic of HF communication compared with communications on VHF and higher frequencies?

(A): Long-distance ionospheric propagation is far more common on HF
B: There is less atmospheric interference (static) on HF
C: HF antennas are generally smaller
D: HF accommodates wider bandwidth signals

T3C03

What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral backscatter?

A: They occur only during winter nighttime hours
B: They are generally strongest when your antenna is aimed west
C: They are often received from 10,000 miles or more
(D): They are distorted and signal strength varies considerably

T3C04

Which of the following types of propagation is most commonly associated with occasional strong signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands from beyond the radio horizon?

(A): Sporadic E
B: D region absorption
C: Gray-line propagation
D: Backscatter

T3C05

Which of the following effects may allow radio signals to travel beyond obstructions between the transmitting and receiving stations?

A: Quantum tunneling
(B): Knife-edge diffraction
C: Doppler shift
D: Faraday rotation

T3C06

What type of propagation is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?

(A): Tropospheric ducting
B: Faraday rotation
C: D region refraction
D: F2 region refraction

T3C07

What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?

(A): 6 meters
B: 33 centimeters
C: 70 centimeters
D: 2 meters

T3C08

What causes tropospheric ducting?

A: Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes
B: Discharges of lightning during electrical storms
(C): Temperature inversions in the atmosphere
D: Sunspots and solar flares

T3C09

What is generally the best time for long-distance 10 meter band propagation via the F region?

A: From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of low sunspot activity
B: From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of high sunspot activity
(C): From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of high sunspot activity
D: From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of low sunspot activity

T3C10

Which of the following bands may provide long-distance communications via the ionosphere’s F region during the peak of the sunspot cycle?

A: 23 centimeters
(B): 6 and 10 meters
C: All these choices are correct
D: 70 centimeters and 1.25 meters

T3C11

Why is the radio horizon for VHF and UHF signals more distant than the visual horizon?

A: Radio signals move somewhat faster than the speed of light
B: Radio waves are blocked by dust particles
(C): The atmosphere refracts radio waves slightly
D: Radio waves are not blocked by dust particles

Subelement T4

T4A01

Which of the following is an appropriate power supply rating for a typical 50 watt output mobile FM transceiver?

A: 13.8 volts at 4 amperes
B: 24.0 volts at 4 amperes
(C): 13.8 volts at 12 amperes
D: 24.0 volts at 12 amperes

T4A02

Which of the following should be considered when selecting an accessory SWR meter?

A: All these choices are correct
B: The distance that the meter will be located from the antenna
C: The types of modulation being used at the station
(D): The frequency and power level at which the measurements will be made

T4A03

Why are short, heavy-gauge wires used for a transceiver’s DC power connection?

A: All these choices are correct
(B): To minimize voltage drop when transmitting
C: To avoid RF interference
D: To provide a good counterpoise for the antenna

T4A04

How are the transceiver audio input and output connected in a station configured to operate using FT8?

A: To an FT8 conversion unit, a keyboard, and a computer monitor
B: To a computer running a terminal program and connected to a terminal node controller unit
C: To a computer connected to the FT8converter.com website
(D): To the audio input and output of a computer running WSJT-X software

T4A05

Where should an RF power meter be installed?

A: At the power supply output
(B): In the feed line, between the transmitter and antenna
C: In parallel with the push-to-talk line and the antenna
D: In the power supply cable, as close as possible to the radio

T4A06

What signals are used in a computer-radio interface for digital mode operation?

A: Antenna and RF power
B: NMEA GPS location and DC power
C: Receive and transmit mode, status, and location
(D): Receive audio, transmit audio, and transmitter keying

T4A07

Which of the following connections is made between a computer and a transceiver to use computer software when operating digital modes?

(A): Computer “line in” to transceiver speaker connector
B: Computer “line in” to transceiver push-to-talk
C: Computer “line out” to transceiver speaker connector
D: Computer “line out” to transceiver push-to-talk

T4A08

Which of the following conductors is preferred for bonding at RF?

A: Steel wire
(B): Flat copper strap
C: Twisted-pair cable
D: Copper braid removed from coaxial cable

T4A09

How can you determine the length of time that equipment can be powered from a battery?

A: Multiply the watts per hour consumed by the equipment by the battery power rating
(B): Divide the battery ampere-hour rating by the average current draw of the equipment
C: Divide the watt-hour rating of the battery by the peak power consumption of the equipment
D: Multiply the square of the current rating of the battery by the input resistance of the equipment

T4A10

What function is performed with a transceiver and a digital mode hot spot?

A: High-speed digital communications for meteor scatter
B: FT8 digital communications via AFSK
(C): Communication using digital voice or data systems via the internet
D: RTTY encoding and decoding without a computer

T4A11

Where should the negative power return of a mobile transceiver be connected in a vehicle?

(A): At the 12 volt battery chassis ground
B: At the antenna mount
C: To any metal part of the vehicle
D: Through the transceiver’s mounting bracket

T4A12

What is an electronic keyer?

A: A device for voice activated switching from receive to transmit
B: A device for switching antennas from transmit to receive
C: An interlock to prevent unauthorized use of a radio
(D): A device that assists in manual sending of Morse code

T4B01

What is the effect of excessive microphone gain on SSB transmissions?

A: Increased SWR
(B): Distorted transmitted audio
C: All these choices are correct
D: Frequency instability

T4B02

Which of the following can be used to enter a transceiver’s operating frequency?

(A): The keypad or VFO knob
B: The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
C: All these choices are correct
D: The Automatic Frequency Control

T4B03

How is squelch adjusted so that a weak FM signal can be heard?

(A): Set the squelch threshold so that receiver output audio is on all the time
B: Enable squelch enhancement
C: Turn on the anti-squelch function
D: Turn up the audio level until it overcomes the squelch threshold

T4B04

What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite frequency or channel on your transceiver?

A: Enable the VOX
B: Enable the frequency offset
(C): Store it in a memory channel
D: Use the scan mode to select the desired frequency

T4B05

What does the scanning function of an FM transceiver do?

A: Prevents interference to nearby repeaters
B: Checks incoming signal deviation
C: Checks for messages left on a digital bulletin board
(D): Tunes through a range of frequencies to check for activity

T4B06

Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal returning to your CQ call seems too high or low?

A: The AGC or limiter
B: The bandwidth selection
C: The tone squelch
(D): The RIT or Clarifier

T4B07

What does a DMR “code plug” contain?

(A): Access information for repeaters and talkgroups
B: The DMR software version
C: The codec for digitizing audio
D: Your call sign in CW for automatic identification

T4B08

What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?

A: Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory
(B): Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode
C: Permits monitoring several modes at once by selecting a separate filter for each mode
D: Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies

T4B09

How is a specific group of stations selected on a digital voice transceiver?

A: By retrieving the frequencies from transceiver memory
(B): By entering the group’s identification code
C: By enabling the group’s CTCSS tone
D: By activating automatic identification

T4B10

Which of the following receiver filter bandwidths provides the best signal-to-noise ratio for SSB reception?

A: 1000 Hz
B: 5000 Hz
C: 500 Hz
(D): 2400 Hz

T4B11

Which of the following must be programmed into a D-STAR digital transceiver before transmitting?

A: The codec type being used
B: All these choices are correct
(C): Your call sign
D: Your output power

T4B12

What is the result of tuning an FM receiver above or below a signal’s frequency?

(A): Distortion of the signal’s audio
B: Generation of a heterodyne tone
C: Sideband inversion
D: Change in audio pitch

Subelement T5

T5A01

Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?

(A): Amperes
B: Volts
C: Watts
D: Ohms

T5A02

Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?

A: Watt-hours
(B): Watts
C: Amperes
D: Volts

T5A03

What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?

A: Resistance
B: Capacitance
(C): Current
D: Voltage

T5A04

What are the units of electrical resistance?

A: Mhos
(B): Ohms
C: Siemens
D: Coulombs

T5A05

What is the electrical term for the force that causes electron flow?

(A): Voltage
B: Inductance
C: Capacitance
D: Ampere-hours

T5A06

What is the unit of frequency?

A: Farad
(B): Hertz
C: Tesla
D: Henry

T5A07

Why are metals generally good conductors of electricity?

A: All these choices are correct
B: They have many free protons
(C): They have many free electrons
D: They have relatively high density

T5A08

Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?

(A): Glass
B: Aluminum
C: Mercury
D: Copper

T5A09

Which of the following describes alternating current?

(A): Current that alternates between positive and negative directions
B: Current that alternates between a positive direction and zero
C: Current that alternates between a negative direction and zero
D: All these answers are correct

T5A10

Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?

A: Current
B: Voltage
C: Resistance
(D): Power

T5A11

What type of current flow is opposed by resistance?

A: Direct current
(B): All these choices are correct
C: Alternating current
D: RF current

T5A12

What describes the number of times per second that an alternating current makes a complete cycle?

A: Wavelength
B: Speed
(C): Frequency
D: Pulse rate

T5B01

How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?

(A): 1500 milliamperes
B: 150 milliamperes
C: 15,000 milliamperes
D: 15 milliamperes

T5B02

Which is equal to 1,500,000 hertz?

A: 15 GHz
(B): 1500 kHz
C: 150 kHz
D: 1500 MHz

T5B03

Which is equal to one kilovolt?

A: One one-thousandth of a volt
(B): One thousand volts
C: One million volts
D: One hundred volts

T5B04

Which is equal to one microvolt?

(A): One one-millionth of a volt
B: One thousand kilovolts
C: One one-thousandth of a volt
D: One million volts

T5B05

Which is equal to 500 milliwatts?

A: 50 watts
B: 0.02 watts
C: 5 watts
(D): 0.5 watts

T5B06

Which is equal to 3000 milliamperes?

A: 0.3 amperes
B: 3,000,000 amperes
(C): 3 amperes
D: 0.003 amperes

T5B07

Which is equal to 3.525 MHz?

(A): 3525 kHz
B: 35.25 kHz
C: 3,525,000 kHz
D: 0.003525 kHz

T5B08

Which is equal to 1,000,000 picofarads?

A: 0.001 microfarads
(B): 1 microfarad
C: 1000 microfarads
D: 1,000,000,000 microfarads

T5B09

Which decibel value most closely represents a power increase from 5 watts to 10 watts?

(A): 3 dB
B: 5 dB
C: 2 dB
D: 10 dB

T5B10

Which decibel value most closely represents a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?

A: -1 dB
(B): -6 dB
C: -9 dB
D: -3 dB

T5B11

Which decibel value represents a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?

A: 18 dB
B: 28 dB
C: 12 dB
(D): 10 dB

T5B12

Which is equal to 28400 kHz?

A: 28.400 kHz
B: 284.00 MHz
C: 2.800 MHz
(D): 28.400 MHz

T5B13

Which is equal to 2425 MHz?

A: 0.002425 GHz
B: 24.25 GHz
(C): 2.425 GHz
D: 2425 GHz

T5C01

What describes the ability to store energy in an electric field?

A: Resistance
B: Inductance
C: Tolerance
(D): Capacitance

T5C02

What is the unit of capacitance?

A: The volt
B: The ohm
C: The henry
(D): The farad

T5C03

What describes the ability to store energy in a magnetic field?

A: Admittance
B: Capacitance
(C): Inductance
D: Resistance

T5C04

What is the unit of inductance?

A: The coulomb
B: The farad
C: The ohm
(D): The henry

T5C05

What is the unit of impedance?

A: The coulomb
B: The volt
(C): The ohm
D: The ampere

T5C06

What does the abbreviation “RF” mean?

A: The resonant frequency of a tuned circuit
(B): Radio frequency signals of all types
C: The real frequency transmitted as opposed to the apparent frequency
D: Reflective force in antenna transmission lines

T5C07

What is the abbreviation for megahertz?

A: MH
B: mh
(C): MHz
D: Mhz

T5C08

What is the formula used to calculate electrical power (P) in a DC circuit?

A: P = E / I
B: P = I + E
(C): P = I × E
D: P = E – I

T5C09

How much power is delivered by a voltage of 13.8 volts DC and a current of 10 amperes?

A: 3.8 watts
B: 23.8 watts
C: 0.7 watts
(D): 138 watts

T5C10

How much power is delivered by a voltage of 12 volts DC and a current of 2.5 amperes?

(A): 30 watts
B: 4.8 watts
C: 14.5 watts
D: 0.208 watts

T5C11

How much current is required to deliver 120 watts at a voltage of 12 volts DC?

(A): 10 amperes
B: 132 amperes
C: 0.1 amperes
D: 12 amperes

T5C12

What is impedance?

(A): The opposition to AC current flow
B: The Q or Quality Factor of a component
C: The inverse of resistance
D: The power handling capability of a component

T5C13

What is the abbreviation for kilohertz?

(A): kHz
B: KHZ
C: khz
D: khZ

T5D01

What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?

A: I = E + R
B: I = E - R
(C): I = E / R
D: I = E × R

T5D02

What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit?

A: E = I / R
(B): E = I x R
C: E = I - R
D: E = I + R

T5D03

What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?

A: R = E + I
B: R = E - I
(C): R = E / I
D: R = E x I

T5D04

What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows when connected to 90 volts?

A: 270 ohms
B: 93 ohms
C: 3 ohms
(D): 30 ohms

T5D05

What is the resistance of a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?

(A): 8 ohms
B: 18 ohms
C: 13.5 ohms
D: 0.125 ohms

T5D06

What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?

A: 8 ohms
B: 48 ohms
(C): 3 ohms
D: 16 ohms

T5D07

What is the current in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms?

A: 9600 amperes
B: 200 amperes
(C): 1.5 amperes
D: 0.667 amperes

T5D08

What is the current through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts?

A: 100 amperes
(B): 2 amperes
C: 20,000 amperes
D: 0.5 amperes

T5D09

What is the current through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts?

(A): 10 amperes
B: 0.1 amperes
C: 216 amperes
D: 24,000 amperes

T5D10

What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?

A: 0.25 volts
B: 2.5 volts
(C): 1 volt
D: 1.5 volts

T5D11

What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it?

A: 1 volt
B: 11 volts
C: 9 volts
(D): 10 volts

T5D12

What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?

A: 0.2 volts
(B): 20 volts
C: 12 volts
D: 8 volts

T5D13

In which type of circuit is DC current the same through all components?

(A): Series
B: Parallel
C: Branch
D: Resonant

T5D14

In which type of circuit is voltage the same across all components?

(A): Parallel
B: Resonant
C: Series
D: Branch

Subelement T6

T6A01

What electrical component opposes the flow of current in a DC circuit?

A: Inductor
(B): Resistor
C: Transformer
D: Inverter

T6A02

What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control?

A: Power resistor
B: Fixed resistor
C: Transformer
(D): Potentiometer

T6A03

What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer?

(A): Resistance
B: Capacitance
C: Field strength
D: Inductance

T6A04

What electrical component stores energy in an electric field?

A: Diode
B: Inductor
(C): Capacitor
D: Varistor

T6A05

What type of electrical component consists of conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?

A: Potentiometer
B: Oscillator
(C): Capacitor
D: Resistor

T6A06

What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field?

A: Varistor
B: Diode
C: Capacitor
(D): Inductor

T6A07

What electrical component is typically constructed as a coil of wire?

A: Diode
(B): Inductor
C: Switch
D: Capacitor

T6A08

What is the function of an SPDT switch?

A: Two circuits are each switched between one of two other circuits
B: Two circuits are opened or closed
(C): A single circuit is switched between one of two other circuits
D: A single circuit is opened or closed

T6A09

What electrical component is used to protect other circuit components from current overloads?

A: All these choices are correct
B: Varactor
C: Thyratron
(D): Fuse

T6A10

Which of the following battery chemistries is rechargeable?

A: Lead-acid
(B): All these choices are correct
C: Nickel-metal hydride
D: Lithium-ion

T6A11

Which of the following battery chemistries is not rechargeable?

A: Lead-acid
B: Lithium-ion
(C): Carbon-zinc
D: Nickel-cadmium

T6A12

Figure for Question T6A12

What type of switch is represented by component 3 in figure T-2?

A: Double-pole double-throw
B: Double-pole single-throw
C: Single-pole double-throw
(D): Single-pole single-throw

T6B01

Which is true about forward voltage drop in a diode?

(A): It is lower in some diode types than in others
B: It indicates that the diode is defective
C: It is proportional to peak inverse voltage
D: It has no impact on the voltage delivered to the load

T6B02

What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction?

A: Driven element
(B): Diode
C: Fuse
D: Resistor

T6B03

Which of these components can be used as an electronic switch?

A: Varistor
B: Thermistor
(C): Transistor
D: Potentiometer

T6B04

Which of the following components can consist of three regions of semiconductor material?

A: Alternator
B: Pentagrid converter
C: Triode
(D): Transistor

T6B05

What type of transistor has a gate, drain, and source?

A: Tesla-effect
B: Varistor
C: Bipolar junction
(D): Field-effect

T6B06

How is the cathode lead of a semiconductor diode often marked on the package?

A: With the word "cathode"
B: With the letter C
(C): With a stripe
D: With the letter K

T6B07

What causes a light-emitting diode (LED) to emit light?

A: Capacitively-coupled RF signal
B: Inductively-coupled RF signal
(C): Forward current
D: Reverse current

T6B08

What does the abbreviation FET stand for?

A: Frequency Emission Transmitter
B: Fast Electron Transistor
C: Free Electron Transmitter
(D): Field Effect Transistor

T6B09

What are the names for the electrodes of a diode?

A: Plus and minus
(B): Anode and cathode
C: Source and drain
D: Gate and base

T6B10

Which of the following can provide power gain?

A: Transformer
B: Reactor
C: Resistor
(D): Transistor

T6B11

What is the term that describes a device's ability to amplify a signal?

A: On resistance
B: Forward resistance
C: Forward voltage drop
(D): Gain

T6B12

What are the names of the electrodes of a bipolar junction transistor?

A: Input, output, supply
B: Pole one, pole two, output
(C): Emitter, base, collector
D: Signal, bias, power

T6C01

What is the name of an electrical wiring diagram that uses standard component symbols?

A: Connector pinout
(B): Schematic
C: Flow chart
D: Bill of materials

T6C02

Figure for Question T6C02

What is component 1 in figure T-1?

A: Battery
B: Connector
C: Transistor
(D): Resistor

T6C03

Figure for Question T6C03

What is component 2 in figure T-1?

A: Resistor
B: Connector
C: Indicator lamp
(D): Transistor

T6C04

Figure for Question T6C04

What is component 3 in figure T-1?

(A): Lamp
B: Ground symbol
C: Transistor
D: Resistor

T6C05

Figure for Question T6C05

What is component 4 in figure T-1?

A: Resistor
B: Transistor
(C): Battery
D: Ground symbol

T6C06

Figure for Question T6C06

What is component 6 in figure T-2?

A: Transistor
B: Resistor
C: Regulator IC
(D): Capacitor

T6C07

Figure for Question T6C07

What is component 8 in figure T-2?

A: Resistor
B: Regulator IC
(C): Light emitting diode
D: Inductor

T6C08

Figure for Question T6C08

What is component 9 in figure T-2?

A: Variable capacitor
(B): Variable resistor
C: Variable inductor
D: Variable transformer

T6C09

Figure for Question T6C09

What is component 4 in figure T-2?

A: Potentiometer
B: Variable inductor
C: Double-pole switch
(D): Transformer

T6C10

Figure for Question T6C10

What is component 3 in figure T-3?

A: Meter
B: Connector
(C): Variable inductor
D: Variable capacitor

T6C11

Figure for Question T6C11

What is component 4 in figure T-3?

(A): Antenna
B: Dummy load
C: Transmitter
D: Ground

T6C12

Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical schematics?

A: Physical appearance of components
(B): Component connections
C: Wire lengths
D: All these choices are correct

T6D01

Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal?

A: Reflector
B: Transformer
(C): Rectifier
D: Amplifier

T6D02

What is a relay?

A: A pass transistor
B: An inverting amplifier
C: A current controlled amplifier
(D): An electrically-controlled switch

T6D03

Which of the following is a reason to use shielded wire?

A: To increase the current carrying capability of the wire
B: To decrease the resistance of DC power connections
C: To couple the wire to other signals
(D): To prevent coupling of unwanted signals to or from the wire

T6D04

Which of the following displays an electrical quantity as a numeric value?

A: Transistor
(B): Meter
C: Potentiometer
D: Relay

T6D05

What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from a power supply?

A: Filter
B: Phase inverter
(C): Regulator
D: Oscillator

T6D06

What component changes 120 V AC power to a lower AC voltage for other uses?

(A): Transformer
B: Transistor
C: Variable capacitor
D: Diode

T6D07

Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator?

(A): LED
B: FET
C: Bipolar transistor
D: Zener diode

T6D08

Which of the following is combined with an inductor to make a resonant circuit?

A: Resistor
B: Potentiometer
(C): Capacitor
D: Zener diode

T6D09

What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?

A: Transducer
(B): Integrated circuit
C: Multi-pole relay
D: Transformer

T6D10

Figure for Question T6D10

What is the function of component 2 in figure T-1?

(A): Control the flow of current
B: Convert electrical energy into radio waves
C: Give off light when current flows through it
D: Supply electrical energy

T6D11

Which of the following is a resonant or tuned circuit?

A: A circuit designed to provide high-fidelity audio
B: A linear voltage regulator
(C): An inductor and a capacitor in series or parallel
D: A resistor circuit used for reducing standing wave ratio

Subelement T7

T7A01

Which term describes the ability of a receiver to detect the presence of a signal?

A: Total Harmonic Distortion
B: Linearity
C: Selectivity
(D): Sensitivity

T7A02

What is a transceiver?

A: A device for converting receiver and transmitter frequencies to another band
(B): A device that combines a receiver and transmitter
C: A device for automatically sending and decoding Morse code
D: A device for matching feed line impedance to 50 ohms

T7A03

Which of the following is used to convert a signal from one frequency to another?

(A): Mixer
B: Inverter
C: Amplifier
D: Phase splitter

T7A04

Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals?

(A): Selectivity
B: Discrimination ratio
C: Harmonic distortion
D: Sensitivity

T7A05

What is the name of a circuit that generates a signal at a specific frequency?

(A): Oscillator
B: Reactance modulator
C: Low-pass filter
D: Phase modulator

T7A06

What device converts the RF input and output of a transceiver to another band?

A: High-pass filter
B: Low-pass filter
(C): Transverter
D: Phase converter

T7A07

What is the function of a transceiver’s PTT input?

(A): Switches transceiver from receive to transmit when grounded
B: Provides a transmit tuning tone when grounded
C: Input for a key used to send CW
D: Input for a preamplifier tuning tone

T7A08

Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?

A: Impedance matching
B: Oscillation
C: Low-pass filtering
(D): Modulation

T7A09

What is the function of the SSB/CW-FM switch on a VHF power amplifier?

A: Reduce the received signal noise
(B): Set the amplifier for proper operation in the selected mode
C: Change the frequency range of the amplifier to operate in the proper segment of the band
D: Change the mode of the transmitted signal

T7A10

What device increases the transmitted output power from a transceiver?

A: A voltage divider
(B): An RF power amplifier
C: All these choices are correct
D: An impedance network

T7A11

Where is an RF preamplifier installed?

A: At the output of the transmitter power amplifier
B: At the output of the receiver audio amplifier
(C): Between the antenna and receiver
D: Between the transmitter and the antenna tuner

T7B01

What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?

A: Talk louder into the microphone
B: Let the transceiver cool off
C: Change to a higher power level
(D): Talk farther away from the microphone

T7B02

What would cause a broadcast AM or FM radio to receive an amateur radio transmission unintentionally?

(A): The receiver is unable to reject strong signals outside the AM or FM band
B: The deviation of an FM transmitter is set too low
C: The microphone gain of the transmitter is turned up too high
D: The audio amplifier of the transmitter is overloaded

T7B03

Which of the following can cause radio frequency interference?

A: Spurious emissions
B: Harmonics
(C): All these choices are correct
D: Fundamental overload

T7B04

Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF current on the shield of a microphone cable?

(A): Ferrite choke
B: Band-pass filter
C: Low-pass filter
D: Preamplifier

T7B05

How can fundamental overload of a non-amateur radio or TV receiver by an amateur signal be reduced or eliminated?

(A): Block the amateur signal with a filter at the antenna input of the affected receiver
B: Switch the transmitter from FM to SSB
C: Switch the transmitter to a narrow-band mode
D: Block the interfering signal with a filter on the amateur transmitter

T7B06

Which of the following actions should you take if a neighbor tells you that your station’s transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception?

(A): Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own radio or television when it is tuned to the same channel
B: Install a harmonic doubler on the output of your transmitter and tune it until the interference is eliminated
C: All these choices are correct
D: Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest FCC office for assistance

T7B07

Which of the following can reduce overload of a VHF transceiver by a nearby commercial FM station?

A: Installing an RF preamplifier
B: Using double-shielded coaxial cable
C: Installing bypass capacitors on the microphone cable
(D): Installing a band-reject filter

T7B08

What should you do if something in a neighbor’s home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station?

A: Politely inform your neighbor that FCC rules prohibit the use of devices that cause interference
(B): All these choices are correct
C: Make sure your station meets the standards of good amateur practice
D: Work with your neighbor to identify the offending device

T7B09

What should be the first step to resolve non-fiber optic cable TV interference caused by your amateur radio transmission?

A: Add a high-pass filter to the TV antenna input
B: Add a low-pass filter to the TV antenna input
(C): Be sure all TV feed line coaxial connectors are installed properly
D: Add a preamplifier to the TV antenna input

T7B10

What might be a problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through an FM repeater is distorted or unintelligible?

A: Your transmitter is slightly off frequency
B: You are in a bad location
(C): All these choices are correct
D: Your batteries are running low

T7B11

What is a symptom of RF feedback in a transmitter or transceiver?

A: The transmitter will not stay on the desired frequency
B: Frequent blowing of power supply fuses
(C): Reports of garbled, distorted, or unintelligible voice transmissions
D: Excessive SWR at the antenna connection

T7C01

What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?

A: To improve the signal-to-noise ratio of a receiver
B: To prevent over-modulation of a transmitter
(C): To prevent transmitting signals over the air when making tests
D: To improve the efficiency of an antenna

T7C02

Which of the following is used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency?

A: A Q meter
(B): An antenna analyzer
C: A VTVM
D: A frequency counter

T7C03

What does a dummy load consist of?

A: A high-gain amplifier and a TR switch
(B): A non-inductive resistor mounted on a heat sink
C: A 50-ohm reactance used to terminate a transmission line
D: A low-voltage power supply and a DC relay

T7C04

What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feed line?

A: 50:50
B: Full Scale
C: Zero
(D): 1:1

T7C05

Why do most solid-state transmitters reduce output power as SWR increases beyond a certain level?

A: Because power supplies cannot supply enough current at high SWR
B: To comply with FCC rules on spectral purity
C: To lower the SWR on the transmission line
(D): To protect the output amplifier transistors

T7C06

What does an SWR reading of 4:1 indicate?

A: Good impedance match
(B): Impedance mismatch
C: Loss of -4 dB
D: Gain of +4 dB

T7C07

What happens to power lost in a feed line?

A: It increases the SWR
(B): It is converted into heat
C: It distorts the signal
D: It is radiated as harmonics

T7C08

Which instrument can be used to determine SWR?

A: Ohmmeter
B: Voltmeter
(C): Directional wattmeter
D: Iambic pentameter

T7C09

Which of the following causes failure of coaxial cables?

A: Solder flux contamination
B: Rapid fluctuation in transmitter output power
(C): Moisture contamination
D: Operation at 100% duty cycle for an extended period

T7C10

Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?

(A): Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable
B: Ultraviolet resistant jackets prevent harmonic radiation
C: Ultraviolet and RF signals can mix, causing interference
D: Ultraviolet light can increase losses in the cable’s jacket

T7C11

What is a disadvantage of air core coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?

(A): It requires special techniques to prevent moisture in the cable
B: It has more loss per foot
C: It cannot be used for VHF or UHF antennas
D: It cannot be used at below freezing temperatures

T7D01

Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential?

(A): A voltmeter
B: A wavemeter
C: An ohmmeter
D: An ammeter

T7D02

How is a voltmeter connected to a component to measure applied voltage?

A: In phase
(B): In parallel
C: In series
D: In quadrature

T7D03

When configured to measure current, how is a multimeter connected to a component?

A: In quadrature
B: In phase
(C): In series
D: In parallel

T7D04

Which instrument is used to measure electric current?

A: A voltmeter
B: An electrometer
(C): An ammeter
D: An ohmmeter

T7D05

Which of the following can damage a multimeter?

A: Attempting to measure resistance using the voltage setting
B: Failing to connect one of the probes to ground
C: Not allowing it to warm up properly
(D): Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting

T7D06

Which of the following measurements are made using a multimeter?

A: Signal strength and noise
(B): Voltage and resistance
C: Impedance and reactance
D: All these choices are correct

T7D07

Which of the following types of solder should not be used for radio and electronic applications?

A: Rosin-core solder
B: Tin-copper solder
(C): Acid-core solder
D: Lead-tin solder

T7D08

What is the characteristic appearance of a cold tin-lead solder joint?

A: Excessive solder
(B): A rough or lumpy surface
C: A bright or shiny surface
D: Dark black spots

T7D09

What reading indicates that an ohmmeter is connected across a large, discharged capacitor?

A: Alternating between open and short circuit
B: Decreasing resistance with time
C: Steady full-scale reading
(D): Increasing resistance with time

T7D10

Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring in-circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?

(A): Ensure that the circuit is not powered
B: Ensure that the applied voltages are correct
C: Ensure that the circuit is operating at the correct frequency
D: Ensure that the circuit is grounded

Subelement T8

T8A01

Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation?

A: Phase shift keying (PSK)
B: Packet radio
(C): Single sideband
D: Spread spectrum

T8A02

What type of modulation is commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions?

A: SSB
(B): FM or PM
C: PSK
D: AM

T8A03

Which type of voice mode is often used for long-distance (weak signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?

(A): SSB
B: DRM
C: FM
D: PM

T8A04

Which type of modulation is commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters?

A: SSB
B: PSK
(C): FM or PM
D: AM

T8A05

Which of the following types of signal has the narrowest bandwidth?

(A): CW
B: FM voice
C: SSB voice
D: Slow-scan TV

T8A06

Which sideband is normally used for 10 meter HF, VHF, and UHF single-sideband communications?

A: Lower sideband
(B): Upper sideband
C: Suppressed sideband
D: Inverted sideband

T8A07

What is a characteristic of single sideband (SSB) compared to FM?

(A): SSB signals have narrower bandwidth
B: SSB signals are less susceptible to interference
C: All these choices are correct
D: SSB signals are easier to tune in correctly

T8A08

What is the approximate bandwidth of a typical single sideband (SSB) voice signal?

A: 6 kHz
(B): 3 kHz
C: 15 kHz
D: 1 kHz

T8A09

What is the approximate bandwidth of a VHF repeater FM voice signal?

A: Between 50 and 125 kHz
B: Less than 500 Hz
(C): Between 10 and 15 kHz
D: About 150 kHz

T8A10

What is the approximate bandwidth of AM fast-scan TV transmissions?

A: About 1 MHz
(B): About 6 MHz
C: More than 10 MHz
D: About 3 MHz

T8A11

What is the approximate bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?

A: 15 kHz
B: 1000 Hz
C: 2.4 kHz
(D): 150 Hz

T8A12

Which of the following is a disadvantage of FM compared with single sideband?

(A): Only one signal can be received at a time
B: All these choices are correct
C: FM signals are harder to tune
D: Voice quality is poorer

T8B01

What telemetry information is typically transmitted by satellite beacons?

A: Time of day accurate to plus or minus 1/10 second
B: All these choices are correct
(C): Health and status of the satellite
D: The signal strength of received signals

T8B02

What is the impact of using excessive effective radiated power on a satellite uplink?

A: Overloading the satellite batteries
B: Possibility of commanding the satellite to an improper mode
C: Possibility of rebooting the satellite control computer
(D): Blocking access by other users

T8B03

Which of the following are provided by satellite tracking programs?

A: The apparent frequency of the satellite transmission, including effects of Doppler shift
B: Maps showing the real-time position of the satellite track over Earth
C: The time, azimuth, and elevation of the start, maximum altitude, and end of a pass
(D): All these choices are correct

T8B04

What mode of transmission is commonly used by amateur radio satellites?

A: CW/data
(B): All these choices are correct
C: SSB
D: FM

T8B05

What is a satellite beacon?

(A): A transmission from a satellite that contains status information
B: An indicator light that shows where to point your antenna
C: A reflective surface on the satellite
D: The primary transmit antenna on the satellite

T8B06

Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?

A: All these choices are correct
(B): The Keplerian elements
C: The last observed time of zero Doppler shift
D: The satellite transmitted power

T8B07

What is Doppler shift in reference to satellite communications?

(A): An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and Earth station
B: A special digital communications mode for some satellites
C: A change in the satellite orbit
D: A mode where the satellite receives signals on one band and transmits on another

T8B08

What is meant by the statement that a satellite is operating in U/V mode?

A: The satellite frequencies are usually variable
B: The satellite operates using ultraviolet frequencies
C: The satellite uplink is in the 15 meter band and the downlink is in the 10 meter band
(D): The satellite uplink is in the 70 centimeter band and the downlink is in the 2 meter band

T8B09

What causes spin fading of satellite signals?

(A): Rotation of the satellite and its antennas
B: Doppler shift of the received signal
C: Interfering signals within the satellite uplink band
D: Circular polarized noise interference radiated from the sun

T8B10

What is a LEO satellite?

(A): A satellite in low earth orbit
B: A sun synchronous satellite
C: A satellite in low energy operation mode
D: A highly elliptical orbit satellite

T8B11

Who may receive telemetry from a space station?

A: A licensed radio amateur who has registered for an access code from AMSAT
(B): Anyone
C: A licensed radio amateur who has been certified by the protocol developer
D: A licensed radio amateur with a transmitter equipped for interrogating the satellite

T8B12

Which of the following is a way to determine whether your satellite uplink power is neither too low nor too high?

(A): Your signal strength on the downlink should be about the same as the beacon
B: All these choices are correct
C: Check your signal strength report in the telemetry data
D: Listen for distortion on your downlink signal

T8C01

Which of the following methods is used to locate sources of noise interference or jamming?

A: Echolocation
(B): Radio direction finding
C: Phase locking
D: Doppler radar

T8C02

Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt?

A: A calibrated noise bridge
B: All these choices are correct
C: Calibrated SWR meter
(D): A directional antenna

T8C03

What operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period?

(A): Contesting
B: Simulated emergency exercises
C: Public service events
D: Net operations

T8C04

Which of the following is good procedure when contacting another station in a contest?

A: Sign only the last two letters of your call if there are many other stations calling
(B): Send only the minimum information needed for proper identification and the contest exchange
C: Contact the station twice to be sure that you are in his log
D: All these choices are correct

T8C05

What is a grid locator?

A: A letter-number designator assigned to an azimuth and elevation
(B): A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location
C: An instrument for neutralizing a final amplifier
D: An instrument for radio direction finding

T8C06

How is over the air access to IRLP nodes accomplished?

A: By using CTCSS tone codes
B: By entering the proper internet password
(C): By using DTMF signals
D: By obtaining a password that is sent via voice to the node

T8C07

What is Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

A: A technique employed to “spot” DX stations via the internet
(B): A method of delivering voice communications over the internet using digital techniques
C: A set of rules specifying how to identify your station when linked over the internet to another station
D: A technique for measuring the modulation quality of a transmitter using remote sites monitored via the internet

T8C08

What is the Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP)?

(A): A technique to connect amateur radio systems, such as repeaters, via the internet using Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)
B: A technique for measuring signal strength of an amateur transmitter via the internet
C: A system for informing amateurs in real time of the frequency of active DX stations
D: A system for providing access to websites via amateur radio

T8C09

Which of the following protocols enables an amateur station to transmit through a repeater without using a radio to initiate the transmission?

A: DMR
B: D-STAR
(C): EchoLink
D: IRLP

T8C10

What is required before using the EchoLink system?

A: Complete the required EchoLink training
B: All these choices are correct
C: Purchase a license to use the EchoLink software
(D): Register your call sign and provide proof of license

T8C11

What is an amateur radio station that connects other amateur stations to the internet?

A: A repeater
(B): A gateway
C: A digipeater
D: A beacon

T8D01

Which of the following is a digital communications mode?

A: FT8
B: IEEE 802.11
C: Packet radio
(D): All these choices are correct

T8D02

What is a “talkgroup” on a DMR repeater?

A: A protocol that increases the signal-to-noise ratio when multiple repeaters are linked together
B: A group of operators sharing common interests
(C): A way for groups of users to share a channel at different times without hearing other users on the channel
D: A net that meets at a specified time

T8D03

What kind of data can be transmitted by APRS?

(A): All these choices are correct
B: Weather data
C: GPS position data
D: Text messages

T8D04

What type of transmission is indicated by the term "NTSC?"

(A): An analog fast-scan color TV signal
B: A special mode for satellite uplink
C: A Normal Transmission mode in Static Circuit
D: A frame compression scheme for TV signals

T8D05

Which of the following is an application of APRS?

(A): Providing real-time tactical digital communications in conjunction with a map showing the locations of stations
B: Providing information on the number of stations signed into a repeater
C: Providing voice over internet connection between repeaters
D: Showing automatically the number of packets transmitted via PACTOR during a specific time interval

T8D06

What does the abbreviation "PSK" mean?

A: Phased Slide Keying
(B): Phase Shift Keying
C: Packet Short Keying
D: Pulse Shift Keying

T8D07

Which of the following describes DMR?

A: An automatic computer logging technique for hands-off logging when communicating while operating a vehicle
B: A digital technique for transmitting on two repeater inputs simultaneously for automatic error correction
C: An automatic position tracking mode for FM mobiles communicating through repeaters
(D): A technique for time-multiplexing two digital voice signals on a single 12.5 kHz repeater channel

T8D08

Which of the following is included in packet radio transmissions?

A: A header that contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being sent
(B): All these choices are correct
C: Automatic repeat request in case of error
D: A check sum that permits error detection

T8D09

What is CW?

A: A type of electromagnetic propagation
B: A technique for coil winding
(C): Another name for a Morse code transmission
D: A digital mode used primarily on 2 meter FM

T8D10

Which of the following operating activities is supported by digital mode software in the WSJT-X software suite?

(A): All these choices are correct
B: Weak signal propagation beacons
C: Earth-Moon-Earth
D: Meteor scatter

T8D11

What is an ARQ transmission system?

A: A system used to encrypt command signals to an amateur radio satellite
(B): An error correction method in which the receiving station detects errors and sends a request for retransmission
C: A method of compressing data using autonomous reiterative Q codes prior to final encoding
D: A special transmission format limited to video signals

T8D12

Which of the following best describes an amateur radio mesh network?

A: An internet linking protocol used to network repeaters
B: A satellite communications network using modified commercial satellite TV hardware
C: A wide-bandwidth digital voice mode employing DMR protocols
(D): An amateur-radio based data network using commercial Wi-Fi equipment with modified firmware

T8D13

What is FT8?

A: An eight channel multiplex mode for FM repeaters
(B): A digital mode capable of low signal-to-noise operation
C: A wideband FM voice mode
D: A digital slow-scan TV mode with forward error correction and automatic color compensation

Subelement T9

T9A01

What is a beam antenna?

A: An antenna that reverses the phase of received signals
(B): An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction
C: An antenna built from aluminum I-beams
D: An omnidirectional antenna invented by Clarence Beam

T9A02

Which of the following describes a type of antenna loading?

A: Strengthening the radiating elements of a beam antenna to better resist wind damage
B: Installing a spring in the base of a mobile vertical antenna to make it more flexible
C: Inserting a resistor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it resonant
(D): Electrically lengthening by inserting inductors in radiating elements

T9A03

Which of the following describes a simple dipole oriented parallel to Earth's surface?

A: A travelling-wave antenna
(B): A horizontally polarized antenna
C: A vertically polarized antenna
D: A ground-wave antenna

T9A04

What is a disadvantage of the short, flexible antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers, compared to a full-sized quarter-wave antenna?

A: All these choices are correct
B: It is mechanically fragile
C: It transmits only circularly polarized signals
(D): It has low efficiency

T9A05

Which of the following increases the resonant frequency of a dipole antenna?

A: Lengthening it
(B): Shortening it
C: Adding capacitive loading to the ends of the radiating wires
D: Inserting coils in series with radiating wires

T9A06

Which of the following types of antenna offers the greatest gain?

A: 5/8 wave vertical
(B): Yagi
C: J pole
D: Isotropic

T9A07

What is a disadvantage of using a handheld VHF transceiver with a flexible antenna inside a vehicle?

A: The SWR might decrease, decreasing the signal strength
(B): Signal strength is reduced due to the shielding effect of the vehicle
C: All these choices are correct
D: The bandwidth of the antenna will decrease, increasing SWR

T9A08

What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz?

A: 12
B: 112
(C): 19
D: 50

T9A09

What is the approximate length, in inches, of a half-wavelength 6 meter dipole antenna?

A: 236
B: 6
C: 50
(D): 112

T9A10

In which direction does a half-wave dipole antenna radiate the strongest signal?

A: In the direction of the feed line
(B): Broadside to the antenna
C: Off the ends of the antenna
D: Equally in all directions

T9A11

What is antenna gain?

A: The increase in impedance on receive or transmit compared to a reference antenna
(B): The increase in signal strength in a specified direction compared to a reference antenna
C: The additional power that is required in the antenna when transmitting on a higher frequency
D: The additional power that is added to the transmitter power

T9A12

What is an advantage of a 5/8 wavelength whip antenna for VHF or UHF mobile service?

A: It has 10 times the power gain of a 1/4 wavelength whip
B: It radiates at a very high angle
C: It eliminates distortion caused by reflected signals
(D): It has more gain than a 1/4-wavelength antenna

T9B01

What is a benefit of low SWR?

A: All these choices are correct
(B): Reduced signal loss
C: Reduced television interference
D: Less antenna wear

T9B02

What is the most common impedance of coaxial cables used in amateur radio?

A: 12 ohms
(B): 50 ohms
C: 600 ohms
D: 8 ohms

T9B03

Why is coaxial cable the most common feed line for amateur radio antenna systems?

A: It has less loss than any other type of feed line
B: It can handle more power than any other type of feed line
C: It is less expensive than any other type of feed line
(D): It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations

T9B04

What is the major function of an antenna tuner (antenna coupler)?

A: It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations
(B): It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance
C: It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used
D: It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive

T9B05

What happens as the frequency of a signal in coaxial cable is increased?

A: The characteristic impedance increases
(B): The loss increases
C: The characteristic impedance decreases
D: The loss decreases

T9B06

Which of the following RF connector types is most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz?

A: RS-213
B: DB-25
C: UHF (PL-259/SO-239)
(D): Type N

T9B07

Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors?

A: They are watertight
B: They are preferred for microwave operation
C: They are a bayonet-type connector
(D): They are commonly used at HF and VHF frequencies

T9B08

Which of the following is a source of loss in coaxial feed line?

(A): All these choices are correct
B: High SWR
C: Multiple connectors in the line
D: Water intrusion into coaxial connectors

T9B09

What can cause erratic changes in SWR?

A: Over-modulation
B: Local thunderstorm
C: Overload from a strong local station
(D): Loose connection in the antenna or feed line

T9B10

What is the electrical difference between RG-58 and RG-213 coaxial cable?

A: There is no significant difference between the two types
B: RG-58 cable can handle higher power levels
C: RG-58 cable has two shields
(D): RG-213 cable has less loss at a given frequency

T9B11

Which of the following types of feed line has the lowest loss at VHF and UHF?

(A): Air-insulated hardline
B: 50-ohm flexible coax
C: Multi-conductor unbalanced cable
D: 75-ohm flexible coax

T9B12

What is standing wave ratio (SWR)?

A: The ratio of amplifier power output to input
B: An indication of the quality of your station’s ground connection
C: The transmitter efficiency ratio
(D): A measure of how well a load is matched to a transmission line

Subelement T0

T0A01

Which of the following is a safety hazard of a 12-volt storage battery?

A: Touching both terminals with the hands can cause electrical shock
B: RF emissions from a nearby transmitter can cause the electrolyte to emit poison gas
C: All these choices are correct
(D): Shorting the terminals can cause burns, fire, or an explosion

T0A02

What health hazard is presented by electrical current flowing through the body?

A: It may cause involuntary muscle contractions
B: It may disrupt the electrical functions of cells
C: It may cause injury by heating tissue
(D): All these choices are correct

T0A03

In the United States, what circuit does black wire insulation indicate in a three-wire 120 V cable?

A: Equipment ground
B: Neutral
(C): Hot
D: Black insulation is never used

T0A04

What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?

(A): To remove power in case of overload
B: To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a component
C: To limit current to prevent shocks
D: All these choices are correct

T0A05

Why should a 5-ampere fuse never be replaced with a 20-ampere fuse?

A: The power supply ripple would greatly increase
B: The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is rated for higher current
(C): Excessive current could cause a fire
D: All these choices are correct

T0A06

What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station?

A: Use three-wire cords and plugs for all AC powered equipment
(B): All these choices are correct
C: Install mechanical interlocks in high-voltage circuits
D: Connect all AC powered station equipment to a common safety ground

T0A07

Where should a lightning arrester be installed in a coaxial feed line?

A: At the ac power service panel
B: At the output connector of a transceiver
(C): On a grounded panel near where feed lines enter the building
D: At the antenna feed point

T0A08

Where should a fuse or circuit breaker be installed in a 120V AC power circuit?

A: In parallel with the hot conductor only
(B): In series with the hot conductor only
C: In parallel with the hot and neutral conductors
D: In series with the hot and neutral conductors

T0A09

What should be done to all external ground rods or earth connections?

A: Tune them for resonance on the lowest frequency of operation
B: Waterproof them with silicone caulk or electrical tape
C: Keep them as far apart as possible
(D): Bond them together with heavy wire or conductive strap

T0A10

What hazard is caused by charging or discharging a battery too quickly?

A: Half-wave rectification
B: Excess output ripple
(C): Overheating or out-gassing
D: Inverse memory effect

T0A11

What hazard exists in a power supply immediately after turning it off?

A: Leakage flux in the power transformer
(B): Charge stored in filter capacitors
C: Voltage transients from kickback diodes
D: Circulating currents in the dc filter

T0A12

Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring high voltages with a voltmeter?

A: Ensure that the circuit is grounded through the voltmeter
B: Ensure that the voltmeter is set to the correct frequency
C: Ensure that the voltmeter has very low impedance
(D): Ensure that the voltmeter and leads are rated for use at the voltages to be measured

T0B01

Which of the following is good practice when installing ground wires on a tower for lightning protection?

(A): Ensure that connections are short and direct
B: Make sure all ground wire bends are right angles
C: Put a drip loop in the ground connection to prevent water damage to the ground system
D: All these choices are correct

T0B02

What is required when climbing an antenna tower?

A: Have sufficient training on safe tower climbing techniques
B: Always wear an approved climbing harness
(C): All these choices are correct
D: Use appropriate tie-off to the tower at all times

T0B03

Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower without a helper or observer?

A: When the work being done is not more than 20 feet above the ground
(B): Never
C: When no mechanical work is being performed
D: When no electrical work is being performed

T0B04

Which of the following is an important safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna tower?

A: Insulate the base of the tower to avoid lightning strikes
(B): Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires
C: All these choices are correct
D: Wear a ground strap connected to your wrist at all times

T0B05

What is the purpose of a safety wire through a turnbuckle used to tension guy lines?

A: Provide an ability to measure for proper tensioning
B: Secure the guy line if the turnbuckle breaks
C: Provide a ground path for lightning strikes
(D): Prevent loosening of the turnbuckle from vibration

T0B06

What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to allow when installing an antenna?

A: 1/2 wavelength at the operating frequency
B: The height of the power line above ground
C: Add the height of the antenna to the height of the power line and multiply by a factor of 1.5
(D): Enough so that if the antenna falls, no part of it can come closer than 10 feet to the power wires

T0B07

Which of the following is an important safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower?

A: This type of tower must never be painted
B: All these choices are correct
C: This type of tower must never be grounded
(D): This type of tower must not be climbed unless it is retracted, or mechanical safety locking devices have been installed

T0B08

Which is a proper grounding method for a tower?

A: A ferrite-core RF choke connected between the tower and ground
B: A single four-foot ground rod, driven into the ground no more than 12 inches from the base
C: A connection between the tower base and a cold water pipe
(D): Separate eight-foot ground rods for each tower leg, bonded to the tower and each other

T0B09

Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?

(A): The antenna could contact high-voltage power lines
B: The 60 Hz radiations from the feed line may increase the SWR
C: The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages
D: All these choices are correct

T0B10

Which of the following is true when installing grounding conductors used for lightning protection?

A: Wires must be carefully routed with precise right-angle bends
B: Use only non-insulated wire
(C): Sharp bends must be avoided
D: Common grounds must be avoided

T0B11

Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?

A: UL recommended practices
B: FAA tower lighting regulations
(C): Local electrical codes
D: FCC Part 97 rules

T0C01

What type of radiation are radio signals?

(A): Non-ionizing radiation
B: Ionizing radiation
C: Alpha radiation
D: Gamma radiation

T0C02

At which of the following frequencies does maximum permissible exposure have the lowest value?

A: 440 MHz
B: 1296 MHz
(C): 50 MHz
D: 3.5 MHz

T0C03

How does the allowable power density for RF safety change if duty cycle changes from 100 percent to 50 percent?

A: There is no adjustment allowed for lower duty cycle
B: It increases by a factor of 3
(C): It increases by a factor of 2
D: It decreases by 50 percent

T0C04

What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna?

A: Frequency and power level of the RF field
B: Radiation pattern of the antenna
(C): All these choices are correct
D: Distance from the antenna to a person

T0C05

Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?

A: Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate the human body
B: Lower frequency RF fields have more energy than higher frequency fields
C: Higher frequency RF fields are transient in nature
(D): The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others

T0C06

Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine whether your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

A: By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
(B): All these choices are correct
C: By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D: By calculation based on computer modeling

T0C07

What hazard is created by touching an antenna during a transmission?

A: All these choices are correct
B: Radiation poisoning
C: Electrocution
(D): RF burn to skin

T0C08

Which of the following actions can reduce exposure to RF radiation?

(A): Relocate antennas
B: Relocate the transmitter
C: Increase the duty cycle
D: All these choices are correct

T0C09

How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?

A: All these choices are correct
B: By making sure your antennas have low SWR
C: By informing the FCC of any changes made in your station
(D): By re-evaluating the station whenever an item in the transmitter or antenna system is changed

T0C10

Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?

(A): It affects the average exposure to radiation
B: It affects the peak exposure to radiation
C: It takes into account the thermal effects of the final amplifier
D: It takes into account the antenna feed line loss

T0C11

What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging time for RF exposure?

(A): The percentage of time that a transmitter is transmitting
B: The difference between the lowest power output and the highest power output of a transmitter
C: The difference between the PEP and average power output of a transmitter
D: The percentage of time that a transmitter is not transmitting

T0C12

How does RF radiation differ from ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?

A: RF radiation can only be detected with an RF dosimeter
(B): RF radiation does not have sufficient energy to cause chemical changes in cells and damage DNA
C: RF radiation is limited in range to a few feet
D: RF radiation is perfectly safe

T0C13

Who is responsible for ensuring that no person is exposed to RF energy above the FCC exposure limits?

A: The local zoning board
B: The FCC
C: Anyone who is near an antenna
(D): The station licensee