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22 โ[1] ืืงืืฉื ืืงืืฉืื OF THE MOST HOLY โ These are what are technically known as ืงืืฉื ืงืืฉืื โ of them he may eat.
โ[2] ืืื ืืงืืฉืื ืืืื AND OF THE HOLY HE MAY EAT โ these are what are technically known as ืงืืฉืื ืงืืื. But if ืงืืฉื ืงืืฉืื are mentioned as being permitted to him as food, why are ืงืืฉืื ืงืืื also mentioned? Could this not be inferred by a conclusion a fortiori? But the explanation is as follows: If ืงืืฉืื ืงืืื were not expressly mentioned as being permitted, I might have said: of the sacrifices holy in the highest degree the priest with a bodily blemish may eat โ because we find that these had on one occasion been permitted to be eaten even by a non-priest, for Moses (who was not a priest) ate the flesh of the installation offering (cf. Leviticus 8:29; and this was holy in the highest degree since Scripture continues there: โSeethe the flesh at the entrance of the appointed tentโฆ etc., a law that only applies to ืงืืฉื ืงืืฉืื) โ but he (a priest who is ืืขื ืืื) must not eat of the breast and the shoulder of sacrifices holy in a minor degree, since we do not find that a non-priest ever took a share in them. On this account sacrifices holy in a minor degree are expressly stated as permitted to be eaten. Thus it is explained in Treatise Zevachim 101b (cf. also Sifra, Emor, Chapter 3 8-9).
Version: Pentateuch with Rashi's commentary by M. Rosenbaum and A.M. Silbermann, 1929-1934
Source: https://www.nli.org.il/he/books/NNL_ALEPH001969084
License: Public Domain