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5 โ[1] ืื ืืงืจืื ืงืจืื THEY SHALL NOT MAKE BALDNESS [UPON THEIR HEAD] for the dead. But were not the ordinary Israelites also forbidden in respect of this? Why then is this law especially stated with reference to the priests? But because in the prohibition addressed to the ordinary Israelites it is stated, (Deuteronomy 14:1) โ[Ye shall not make anybaldness] between your eyes [for the dead]โ, I might think that one is not liable to punishment for making baldness on any other part of the whole head, Scripture therefore states here: โupon their headsโ; and now that we have both commands, the law regarding the Israelites may be derived from that addressed to the priests from a similarity of terms used in both prohibitions: the term โืงืจืืโ is used here, and in the prohibition regarding the Israelites it also uses the term โืงืจืืโ; what is the case here? The prohibition applies to the whole head! So, also, there the whole head is included in the prohibition. And, on the other hand, how is the case there? The prohibition is limited to making baldness for the dead! So here too it applies only to such baldness as is made for the dead (Makkot 20a; Kiddushin 36a).
โ[2] ืืคืืช ืืงื ื ืื ืืืืื NEITHER SHALL THEY RAZE THE CORNER OF THEIR BEARD โ Because it is written in the prohibition addressed to the ordinary Israelites, (Leviticus 19:27) โthou shalt not destroy (ืชืฉืืืช) [the corners of thy beard]โ, I might think if one took it (the hair) off with a ืืืงื or a ืจืืืื ื, tweezers or plane-like or file-like tools that may be used for destroying the hair, he is guilty of violating the law! Scripture therefore states here "they shall not raze off (ืื ืืืืื) the corner of their beard", the two statements supplementing each other, thus teaching that one is liable only for the use of an instrument the employment of which is termed ืืืืื (razing), and ,which at the same time, involves the destruction of the hair, and this results only from the use of a razor (Makkot 21a).
โ[3] ืืืืฉืจื ืื ืืฉืจืื ืฉืจืืช NOR SHALL THEY MAKE ANY INCISION IN THEIR FLESH โ This is stated in addition to the law in Leviticus 19:28 for the following reason: Because it is said there of the ordinary Israelites โand ye shall not make a cutting in your flesh for the deadโ, I might think that if one made five incisions at the same time he is liable to the punishment of lashes only once, Scripture therefore states here: ืื ืืฉืจืื ืฉืจืืช โthey shall not incise an incision" to make one liable for each and every incision โ for this word (ืฉืจืืช) would be redundant if it added nothing to the previous prohibition and must therefore have been added for the purpose of deriving an Halacha, since it ought to have written only ืื ืืฉืจืื and I would then have known that it refers to making incisions and consequently the intention of Scripture by using the term "they shall not incise an incision" is to make one liable to punishment for each incision (cf. Sifra, Emor, Chapter 1 4).
Version: Pentateuch with Rashi's commentary by M. Rosenbaum and A.M. Silbermann, 1929-1934
Source: https://www.nli.org.il/he/books/NNL_ALEPH001969084
License: Public Domain