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It's wild that the number of people in Israel who were both uninfected and not vaccinated is so tiny and skewed that they do not compute the number of risk-days associated with that group. I wonder how they make that judgement call. I also wonder what the risk-day values were during the beginning when there was no vaccine. Is it possible to construct a cohort of fully-vaccinated followed by infection? I wonder if this also becomes too rare and skewed at this time.
If I'm reading the numbers right, it looks like previous infection is better a year out by a factor of >2 than 2x vaccinated 6 mths ago (note they are not even comparable on the same time scales)