3 upvotes, 1 direct replies (showing 1)
View submission: /r/philosophy Open Discussion Thread | February 24, 2025
This presumes that "inequality" is one thing with one source. I don't believe that a fundamental understanding of the phenomenon requires the specific viewpoint laid out. If one sees inequality as resulting from scarcity, for instance, different conclusions are rational.
Comment by Formless_Mind at 25/02/2025 at 04:11 UTC
1 upvotes, 0 direct replies
Of course inequality isn't of one variable but competition will always breed it's natural/inevitable outcome hence Matthew's distribution law of those who've more get more while vise-versa