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View submission: Why is the verb for 'to be' so irregular in so many languages?
Latin often leaves "to be" implied.
One of the first sentence you may learn is "puella rosam dat" ('the girl gives the roses), so you can observe that the normal word order in a sentence is SOV ('subject-object-verb), but with to be, you'll often find often the V missing as it is implied
e.g. "Carthago delenda" ("Carthage must be destroyed") has "est" implied; "Carthago delenda est" would be the full form.
Sometime, you'll find the verb to be expressed but that is used for emphasis.
There's nothing here!