1 upvotes, 1 direct replies (showing 1)
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They didnt USED to refer to it as that but when I became nonbinary, they started to.
And the way Ive researched it seems to be that if youre anything other than male, my HRT is gender care.
BUT if youre male, seeking T to treat a medical condition, that can only occur in males, XXY in my case, it becomes magically, not GAC.
Comment by nsaphyra at 22/01/2025 at 19:09 UTC*
2 upvotes, 1 direct replies
correct, testosterone in any relevant dose is considered gender affirming if the individual isn't "deemed male" (or "male prevailing" in my case, not sure how they word that now). the only other way i could see it billed if not being administered for that is for people that are "deemed female" and are administered a very tiny amount of compounded cream for gyn issues (but it's such a small dose it's more or less unrelated). this is really the fallacy of the health insurance billing conditions generally being heavily tied to sex (especially when it comes to medicare/medicaid). it's also a part of why there is "hypospadias" (deemed a male condition) and "other hypospadias" (also known as "intersex hypospadias") as two separate listings. the latter is considered an intersex condition due to its severity, while the former by itself is not normally.
as you've likely noticed in your research, a lot of navigating healthcare as an intersex person is unfortunately "what box are they stuffing me in and what tools do i have in that box to throw at them", as we don't really have anywhere to truly be "placed" in regards to our biology.