Historically, was characterizing salutes similar to the Nazi Salute as a Roman Salute an attempt to whitewash?

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1i7b0z5/historically_was_characterizing_salutes_similar/

created by drowningcreek on 22/01/2025 at 13:24 UTC*

0 upvotes, 3 top-level comments (showing 3)

Historically, was characterizing salutes similar to the Nazi Salute as a Roman Salute an attempt to whitewash what the person was doing? Upon reading the Wikipedia page it appears that the Roman Salute did not look anything like it is characterized today. Have people using the Nazi salute attempted to hide what they were doing by whitewashing it as a Roman salute?

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Comment by AutoModerator at 22/01/2025 at 13:24 UTC

1 upvotes, 0 direct replies

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Comment by gynnis-scholasticus at 22/01/2025 at 13:39 UTC

8 upvotes, 0 direct replies

See this thread[1] by u/Georgy_K_Zhukov for the names and original meaning of this salute.

1: https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/ax6huh/where_did_the_nazi_salute_come_from/

Comment by EdHistory101 at 22/01/2025 at 14:32 UTC

2 upvotes, 0 direct replies

Between 1892 and 1944, there was a gesture used in America that resembled a Nazi salute. Known as a "Bellamy Salute," it was meant to accompany the American pledge of allegiance. I get more into that history here[1].

1: https://old.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1i6x2nu/has_there_ever_been_a_case_postww2_where_someone/m8j9bpt/